Unit 4 Study Guide Multiple Choice



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Unit 4 Study Guide
Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1. Complete sensation in the absence of complete perception is best illustrated by

a.

Weber's law.

b.

prosopagnosia.

c.

conduction deafness.

d.

color constancy.

e.

sensory interaction.

2. The process of receiving and representing stimulus energies by the nervous system is called



a.

priming.

b.

synaesthesia.

c.

accommodation.

d.

sensation.

e.

perception.

3. The detection and encoding of stimulus energies by the nervous system is called



a.

signal detection.

b.

priming.

c.

synaesthesia.

d.

accommodation.

e.

sensation.

4. Patients' negative expectations about the outcome of a surgical procedure can increase their postoperative experience of pain. This best illustrates the importance of



a.

transduction.

b.

accommodation.

c.

sensory adaptation.

d.

difference thresholds.

e.

top-down processing.

5. The effect of prior experience and current expectations on perception best illustrates the importance of



a.

accommodation.

b.

transduction.

c.

sensory thresholds.

d.

top-down processing.

e.

sensation.

6. Trying to see a hidden representational image in a piece of abstract art by looking carefully at each element in the picture and trying to form an image employs which kind of perceptual process?



a.

selective attention

b.

interposition

c.

perceptual adaptation

d.

bottom-up processing

e.

retinal disparity

7. Bottom-up processing involves analysis that begins with the



a.

optic nerve.

b.

sensory receptors.

c.

cerebral cortex.

d.

feature detectors.

e.

occipital lobe.

8. You typically fail to consciously perceive that your own nose is in your line of vision. This best illustrates



a.

subliminal perception.

b.

change blindness.

c.

fovea.

d.

selective attention.

e.

the visual cliff.

9. In University of Utah driving-simulation experiments, students conversing on cell phones were slower to detect and respond to traffic signals. This best illustrates



a.

retinal disparity.

b.

the phi phenomenon.

c.

gate-control theory.

d.

place theory.

e.

selective attention.

10. Researchers found that 40 percent of people focused on repeating a list of challenging words failed to notice a change in the person speaking. This best illustrates



a.

feature detectors.

b.

the blind spot.

c.

the difference threshold.

d.

priming.

e.

change deafness.

11. Standing in the checkout line at the grocery store, Jerry kept looking at his watch to see the time. As a result, he failed to see that a store employee was being robbed by a person just in front of him. Jerry most clearly suffered



a.

place theory.

b.

inattentional blindness.

c.

sensory interaction.

d.

blind spot.

e.

feature detectors.

12. While a man provided directions to a construction worker, two experimenters rudely interrupted by passing between them carrying a door. The student's failure to notice that the construction worker was replaced by a different person during this interruption illustrates



a.

blind spot.

b.

gate-control theory.

c.

bottom-up processing.

d.

change blindness.

e.

top-down processing.

13. Research participants picked one of two photographed faces as more attractive. When researchers cleverly switched the photos, participants readily explained why they preferred the face they had actually rejected. Their behavior illustrated



a.

the blind spot.

b.

choice blindness.

c.

feature detectors.

d.

sensory interaction.

e.

perceptual adaptation.

14. The minimum amount of stimulation a person needs to detect a stimulus 50 percent of the time is called the



a.

adaptation threshold.

b.

difference threshold.

c.

subliminal threshold.

d.

absolute threshold.

e.

change threshold.

15. Although Manuel was sitting right next to his parents, he smelled a skunk minutes before they did. Apparently, Manuel has a lower ________ for skunk odor than his parents have.



a.

accommodation level

b.

absolute threshold

c.

tolerance level

d.

olfactory saturation level

e.

adaptation level

16. Which theory emphasizes that personal expectations and motivations influence the level of absolute thresholds?



a.

signal detection theory

b.

frequency theory

c.

opponent-process theory

d.

place theory

e.

bottom-up theory

17. An exhausted forest ranger may notice the faintest scent of a forest fire, whereas much stronger but less important odors fail to catch her attention. This fact would be of greatest relevance to



a.

the Young-Helmholtz theory.

b.

opponent-process theory.

c.

signal detection theory.

d.

frequency theory.

e.

place theory.

18. The fact that fear may increase your sensitivity to an almost imperceptible pain stimulus is of most relevance to



a.

place theory.

b.

frequency theory.

c.

the Young-Helmholtz theory.

d.

opponent-process theory.

e.

signal detection theory.

19. In experiments, an image is quickly flashed and then replaced by a masking stimulus that inhibits conscious perception of the original image. In these experiments, the researchers are studying the effects of



a.

accommodation.

b.

tinnitus.

c.

priming.

d.

blindsight.

e.

prosopagnosia.

20. Those who believe in the value of subliminal audiotapes would be wrong to claim that



a.

we can sometimes sense stimuli below our absolute threshold.

b.

subliminal stimuli can trigger priming.

c.

unconsciously processed information is unusually persuasive.

d.

imperceptibly brief stimuli can trigger a weak response.

e.

some information is processed automatically and we are not conscious of it.

21. The process by which our sensory systems convert stimulus energies into neural messages is called



a.

priming.

b.

sensory adaptation.

c.

transduction.

d.

parallel processing.

e.

sensory interaction.

22. Why is transduction important to sensation?



a.

It explains our diminishing sensitivity to an unchanging stimulus.

b.

It illustrates how much of information processing occurs automatically.

c.

It demonstrates how our experiences and expectations affect whether we perceive a stimuli.

d.

It converts physical stimuli, such as light, into neural messages.

e.

It causes the lens to focus light waves on the retina by changing its curvature.

23. The amplitude of electromagnetic waves determines the ________ of light.



a.

absolute threshold

b.

brightness

c.

hue

d.

difference threshold

e.

wavelength

24. The amount of light entering the eye is regulated by the



a.

lens.

b.

iris.

c.

retina.

d.

optic nerve.

e.

feature detectors.

25. Which process allows more light to reach the periphery of the retina?



a.

accommodation of the lens

b.

transduction of the blind spot

c.

dilation of the pupil

d.

sensory adaptation of feature detectors

e.

focusing light effectively on the fovea

26. Objects are brought into focus on the retina by changes in the curvature and thickness of the



a.

rods and cones.

b.

lens.

c.

bipolar cells.

d.

optic nerve.

e.

cornea.

27. The light-sensitive inner surface of the eye, containing the rods and cones, is the



a.

fovea.

b.

optic nerve.

c.

cornea.

d.

retina.

e.

iris.

28. The receptor cells that convert light energy into neural signals are called



a.

bipolar cells.

b.

ganglion cells.

c.

rods and cones.

d.

feature detectors.

e.

opponent processors.

29. The axons of ganglion cells converge to form



a.

the basilar membrane.

b.

bipolar cells.

c.

the auditory nerve.

d.

the optic nerve.

e.

the olfactory epithelium.

30. The most light-sensitive receptor cells are the



a.

ganglion cells.

b.

cones.

c.

bipolar cells.

d.

rods.

e.

iris.

31. Rods are



a.

more light-sensitive and more color-sensitive than are cones.

b.

less light-sensitive and less color-sensitive than are cones.

c.

more light-sensitive and less color-sensitive than are cones.

d.

less light-sensitive and more color-sensitive than are cones.

e.

more frequency sensitive and less amplitude sensitive.

32. The direct link between a single cone and a single ________ preserves the fine details in the cone's message.



a.

rod

b.

ganglion cell

c.

blind spot

d.

bipolar cell

e.

cochlea

33. Damage to the fovea would have the greatest effect on



a.

night vision.

b.

peripheral vision.

c.

visual acuity.

d.

sensory adaptation.

e.

kinesthesis.

34. Visual information is processed by



a.

feature detectors before it is processed by rods and cones.

b.

ganglion cells before it is processed by feature detectors.

c.

bipolar cells before it is processed by rods and cones.

d.

feature detectors before it is processed by bipolar cells.

e.

the optic nerve before it is processed by ganglion cells.

35. The feature detectors identified by Hubel and Weisel respond to specific aspects of ________ stimulation.



a.

vestibular

b.

visual

c.

auditory

d.

olfactory

e.

kinesthetic

36. When looking at the hands of a clock showing 8 o'clock, certain brain cells in the visual cortex are more responsive than when the hands show 10 o'clock. This is most indicative of



a.

sensory interaction.

b.

feature detection.

c.

parallel processing.

d.

perceptual adaptation.

e.

accommodation.

37. Feature detectors pass information to other cortical areas where complex patterns are processed by



a.

bipolar cells.

b.

supercell clusters.

c.

the optic nerve.

d.

opponent-process cells.

e.

cochlear implants.

38. Feature detectors



a.

are retinal cells that allow you to see in dim light and are located in the periphery of the eye.

b.

combine to form the optic nerve, which sends visual information to the brain.

c.

are primarily located in the fovea.

d.

are nerve cells in the brain's visual cortex that fire in response to specific edges, lines, and angles.

e.

cause the lens to change its curvature in response to incoming light waves.

39. Supercell clusters are



a.

located in the spinal cord and conduct most pain signals to the somatosensory cortex in the parietal lobe.

b.

connected to hair cells located along the basilar membrane in the inner ear.

c.

photoreceptor cells, located in the retina, that combine to send information to the visual cortex.

d.

teams of cells that fire in response to complex patterns, such as the human face.

e.

combined messages from the semicircular canals and vestibular sacs in the inner ear that monitor head position and movement.

40. The ability to simultaneously process the pitch, loudness, melody, and meaning of a song best illustrates



a.

subliminal perception.

b.

kinesthesis.

c.

accommodation.

d.

sensory adaptation.

e.

parallel processing.

41. The human ability to speedily recognize familiar objects best illustrates the value of



a.

accommodation.

b.

kinesthesis.

c.

subliminal stimulation.

d.

sensory interaction.

e.

parallel processing.

42. When most people stare at a red square and then shift their eyes to a white surface, the afterimage of the square is



a.

yellow.

b.

red.

c.

green.

d.

blue.

e.

white.

43. Which theory best explains the occurrence of afterimages?



a.

trichromatic

b.

opponent-process

c.

place

d.

frequency

e.

signal-detection

44. The pitch of a sound is determined by what?



a.

the frequency of the sound wave

b.

the amplitude of the sound wave

c.

the loudness of the sound wave

d.

the decibel level of the sound wave

e.

the vestibular level of the sound wave

45. Brightness is to light as ________ is to sound.



a.

pitch

b.

loudness

c.

frequency

d.

amplitude

e.

wavelength

46. Sound wave vibrations are transmitted by three tiny bones located in the



a.

vestibular sacs.

b.

semicircular canals.

c.

inner ear.

d.

cochlea.

e.

middle ear.

47. The coiled, fluid-filled tube in which sound waves trigger nerve impulses is called the



a.

eustachian tube.

b.

auditory canal.

c.

semicircular canal.

d.

cochlea.

e.

vestibular apparatus.

48. What is the purpose of the eardrum?



a.

Vibration of the eardrum directly causes ripples in the basilar membrane.

b.

Axons on the eardrum converge to form the auditory nerve, which sends auditory messages to the brain.

c.

Transduction of sound waves into neural messages occurs in the eardrum.

d.

Movement of the eardrum directly causes the stirrup to vibrate.

e.

To transmit sound from the air to the bones of the middle ear.

49. By amplifying soft sounds but not loud sounds, digital hearing aids produce



a.

sensory interaction.

b.

compressed sound.

c.

subliminal stimulation.

d.

sensory compensation.

e.

feature detectors.

50. Which theory best explains how we perceive low-pitched sounds?



a.

place theory

b.

opponent-process theory

c.

frequency theory

d.

the Young-Helmholtz theory

e.

gate-control theory

51. Frequency theory best explains _______, while place theory best explains ________.



a.

how we process red, green, and blue light; why we experience color afterimages

b.

how we perceive low-pitched sounds; how we perceive high-pitched sounds

c.

how touch sensations involve more than tactile stimulation; why stroking a pressure spot leads to the sensation of a tickle

d.

how we are able to sense our body position without looking; how the vestibular sense functions

e.

how phantom limb sensations occur; how stimulation of the larger fibers in the spinal cord stop pain

52. Current research suggests that



a.

the place theory best explains how we hear different pitches.

b.

the frequency theory is the most comprehensive in explaining pitch perception.

c.

the place and frequency theories correctly explain different aspects of how we hear pitch.

d.

both the place and frequency theories are wrong in explaining how we hear different pitches.

e.

opponent-process theory shows more promise than either place or frequency theories in explaining pitch perception.

53. A time lag between left and right auditory stimulation is important for accurately



a.

locating sounds.

b.

detecting pitch.

c.

recognizing rhythms.

d.

judging amplitude.

e.

determining frequency.

54. Which of the following best explains why we have difficulty locating sounds that are directly overhead?



a.

When the sound is directly overhead, it reaches both ears simultaneously.

b.

The hair cells along the basilar membrane do not fire when the sounds are directly overhead.

c.

The bones of the middle ear are all vibrating at different rates.

d.

The sound has become compressed and harder to hear.

e.

An individual neuron cannot fire faster than 1000 times per second.

55. Damage to the hammer, anvil, and stirrup is most likely to cause



a.

prosopagnosia.

b.

sensorineural hearing loss.

c.

phantom limb sensations.

d.

conduction hearing loss.

e.

synaesthesia.

56. Which of the following circumstances is most likely to contribute to conduction hearing loss?



a.

failure to use earplugs while working in a noisy factory

b.

exposure to very loud rock music

c.

misuse of Q-tips (cotton swabs) in cleaning your ears

d.

exposure to unpredictable or uncontrollable noise

e.

biological changes linked with aging

57. A cochlear implant would be most helpful for those who suffer



a.

loss of movement.

b.

loss of position.

c.

loss of balance.

d.

conduction hearing loss.

e.

sensorineural hearing loss.

58. The simultaneous stimulation of adjacent cold and warmth spots on the skin produces the sensation of



a.

hot.

b.

cold.

c.

pressure.

d.

wetness.

e.

pain.

59. Researchers have identified receptors for which of the following skin sensations?



a.

pain

b.

cold

c.

warmth

d.

pressure

e.

hot

60. The impact of top-down processing on the sense of touch is best illustrated by



a.

sensory interaction.

b.

psychokinesis.

c.

place theory.

d.

the rubber-hand illusion.

e.

retinal disparity.

61. Which of the following play the biggest role in our feeling dizzy and unbalanced after a thrilling roller coaster ride?



a.

olfactory receptors

b.

feature detectors

c.

basilar membranes

d.

semicircular canals

e.

eardrum

62. The classic gate-control theory suggests that pain is experienced when small nerve fibers activate and open a neural gate in the



a.

basilar membrane.

b.

semicircular canals.

c.

olfactory bulb.

d.

spinal cord.

e.

fovea.

63. According to the gate-control theory, a back massage would most likely reduce your physical aches and pains by causing



a.

release of pain-killing endorphins in your muscles.

b.

activation of nerve fibers in your spinal cord.

c.

the release of adrenaline into your bloodstream.

d.

deactivation of the pain receptors on the surface of your skin.

e.

the cochlea to transduce impulses sent to the spinal cord.

64. After losing his left hand in an accident, Jack continued to experience pain in his nonexistent hand. His experience illustrates



a.

bottom-up processing.

b.

sensory adaptation.

c.

phantom limb sensations.

d.

the vestibular sense.

e.

top-down processing.

65. Phantom limb sensations best illustrate that pain can be experienced in the absence of



a.

sensory input.

b.

top-down processing.

c.

conscious awareness.

d.

parallel processing.

e.

figure-ground.

66. Tinnitus is a phantom ________ sensation.



a.

visual

b.

auditory

c.

taste

d.

touch

e.

kinesthetic

67. Our sense of taste originally was thought to involve only the following four sensations



a.

sweet, salty, starch, and bitter.

b.

salty, fatty, bitter, and sweet.

c.

sour, bitter, sweet, and starchy.

d.

bitter, sweet, sour, and salty.

e.

fruity, fatty, silky, and coarse.

68. Many researchers believe that pleasing tastes attracted our ancestors to energy- or protein-rich foods that enabled their survival. Such researchers are most likely



a.

behavior geneticists.

b.

behaviorists.

c.

evolutionary psychologists.

d.

molecular geneticists.

e.

neuropsychologists.

69. Which of the following senses is best described as a chemical sense?



a.

touch

b.

kinesthesis

c.

audition

d.

vision

e.

smell

70. Taste and smell are both what kind of senses?



a.

vestibular

b.

kinesthetic

c.

energy

d.

chemical

e.

perceptual

71. Which of the following would play a role in quickly alerting you to a gas leak in your home?



a.

vestibular sacs

b.

bipolar cells

c.

olfactory receptors

d.

feature detectors

e.

basilar membrane

72. A gestalt is best described as a(n)



a.

binocular cue.

b.

illusion.

c.

perceptual adaptation.

d.

organized whole.

e.

perceptual set.

73. A floating sea vessel is to the ocean water as ________ is to ________.



a.

light and shadow; relative height

b.

closure; continuity

c.

lightness constancy; relative height

d.

figure; ground

e.

proximity; similarity

74. Experiments with the visual cliff suggest that



a.

humans must learn to recognize depth.

b.

binocular cues are more important than monocular cues.

c.

the ability to perceive depth is at least partly innate.

d.

unlike other animals, humans do not perceive depth until about 8 months of age.

e.

our brains don't learn how to combine signals from both eyes until months after birth.

75. A 3-D movie enhances our sense of depth perception by simulating the effects of



a.

interposition.

b.

retinal disparity.

c.

linear perspective.

d.

perceptual constancy.

e.

gestalt cues.

76. Distant trees were located closer to the top of the artist's canvas than were the nearby flowers. The artist was clearly using the distance cue known as



a.

linear perspective.

b.

light and shadow.

c.

relative height.

d.

relative size.

e.

interposition.

77. Renny knew the red tulip was closer to her than the yellow tulip because the red one cast a larger retinal image than the yellow one. This illustrates the importance of the distance cue known as



a.

relative size.

b.

interposition.

c.

proximity.

d.

relative height.

e.

continuity.

78. As we move, objects that are fixed in place (a light pole, for example) may appear to move. What is this monocular cue for depth called?



a.

relative motion

b.

interposition

c.

proximity

d.

retinal disparity

e.

continuity

79. If we see two of the same object but one of them appears to be dimmer, we will interpret the dimmer object as farther away. What is this monocular cue for depth called?



a.

color constancy

b.

interposition

c.

proximity

d.

light and shadow

e.

continuity

80. The perception that Bugs Bunny is hopping across a movie screen best illustrates



a.

the Müller-Lyer illusion.

b.

retinal disparity.

c.

the Ponzo illusion.

d.

stroboscopic movement.

e.

opponent-process.

81. The quick succession of briefly flashed images in a motion picture produces



a.

retinal disparity.

b.

the Ponzo illusion.

c.

stroboscopic movement.

d.

linear perspective.

e.

frequency theory.

82. When two adjacent lights blink on and off in quick succession, we perceive a single light moving back and forth between them. This is called



a.

lightness constancy.

b.

perceptual adaptation.

c.

the phi phenomenon.

d.

perceptual set.

e.

a context effect.

83. Although textbooks frequently cast a trapezoidal image on the retina, students typically perceive the books as rectangular objects. This illustrates the importance of



a.

interposition.

b.

size constancy.

c.

linear perspective.

d.

shape constancy.

e.

binocular cues.

84. The perceived size of an object is most strongly influenced by that object's perceived



a.

shape.

b.

color.

c.

distance.

d.

motion.

e.

frequency.

85. Knowing about the effects of the perceived distance of objects on their perceived size helps us to understand



a.

the Moon illusion.

b.

the McGurk effect.

c.

prosopagnosia.

d.

phantom limb sensations.

e.

parallel processing.

86. The Ames illusion involving two girls who are perceived as very different in size can best be explained in terms of



a.

shape constancy.

b.

retinal disparity.

c.

the principle of continuity.

d.

the misperception of distance.

e.

the visual cliff.

87. The philosopher Immanuel Kant emphasized that



a.

perception is the same as sensation.

b.

we learn to perceive the world through experience.

c.

the whole is equal to the sum of its parts.

d.

perception depends on innate ways of organizing sensory experience.

e.

our perceptual sets are conditioned shortly after birth.

88. Rebecca was born with cataracts that were not surgically removed until she was 3 years old. As a result, Rebecca is most likely to



a.

have lost visual receptor cells in her eyes.

b.

be unable to perceive figure-ground relationships.

c.

have inadequate neural connections in her visual cortex.

d.

be unable to sense colors.

e.

see normally since her main visual receptors (retinas) were unaffected.

89. Humans born blind or kittens raised under restricted conditions do not have the cortical regions needed to interpret visual stimuli. Sensory restriction does not appear to do damage if it occurs later in life. This suggests that



a.

a critical period exists for normal perceptual development.

b.

perceptual adaptation to changed visual input can be dramatic.

c.

a given stimulus may trigger widely different perceptions.

d.

detecting a stimulus depends on the signal's strength and our psychological state.

e.

much of our information processing occurs automatically.

90. The impact of experience on perception is most clearly illustrated by



a.

relative luminance.

b.

retinal disparity.

c.

the phi phenomenon.

d.

perceptual adaptation.

e.

place theory.

91. After watching a scary television movie, Julie perceived the noise of the wind rattling her front windows as the sound of a burglar breaking into her house. Her mistaken interpretation best illustrates the influence of



a.

perceptual set.

b.

binocular cues.

c.

perceptual adaptation.

d.

bottom-up processing.

e.

stroboscopic movement.

92. As the text notes, “Once we have formed a wrong idea about reality, we have more difficulty seeing the truth.” This best illustrates the impact of



a.

synaesthesia.

b.

the phi phenomenon.

c.

top-down processing.

d.

retinal disparity.

e.

transduction.

93. John Locke would have suggested that a perceptual set results from



a.

retinal disparity.

b.

psychokinesis.

c.

natural selection.

d.

prior experience.

e.

genetics.

94. When researchers added a few drops of vinegar to a brand-name beer, the beer tasters disliked it only if they had been told they were drinking vinegar-laced beer. This best illustrates the impact of



a.

kinesthesis.

b.

interposition.

c.

perceptual set.

d.

the McGurk effect.

e.

feature detectors.

95. Stereotypes are mental conceptions that can strongly influence the way we interpret the behaviors of individuals belonging to specific racial or ethnic groups. A stereotype is most similar to



a.

a feature detector.

b.

perceptual adaptation.

c.

a perceptual set.

d.

a difference threshold.

e.

gate-control theory.

96. Jamal claims that his special psychic powers enable him to perceive exactly where the body of a recent murder victim is secretly buried. Jamal is claiming to possess the power of



a.

psychokinesis.

b.

precognition.

c.

telepathy.

d.

clairvoyance.

e.

transduction.

97. Margo insists that her dreams frequently enable her to perceive and predict future events. Margo is claiming to possess the power of



a.

telepathy.

b.

clairvoyance.

c.

precognition.

d.

psychokinesis.

e.

transduction.

98. Shauna claims that she knows at any given moment exactly what important political figures are thinking. Shauna is claiming to possess the power of



a.

telepathy.

b.

precognition.

c.

psychokinesis.

d.

clairvoyance.

e.

transduction.

99. Clairvoyance refers to the



a.

extrasensory transmission of thoughts from one mind to another.

b.

extrasensory perception of events that occur at places remote to the perceiver.

c.

perception of future events, such as a person's fate.

d.

ability to understand and share the emotions of another person.

e.

ability to interpret neural patterns as perceptions.

100. Which of the following is true of psychics who have worked with police departments in an effort to solve difficult crimes?



a.

They have demonstrated the value of clairvoyance.

b.

They have used telepathy to read the mind of the criminal.

c.

They have used precognition to forewarn the police of criminal acts.

d.

They have provided useful predictions using all their powers in 90 percent of the cases.

e.

They have reported visions that are no more accurate than guesses.




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