Lateral Corticospinal



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SPINAL ANATOMY

Which of the following tracts are motor?


Lateral Corticospinal


Ventral Corticospinal

Olivospinal

Reticulospinal

Rubrospinal

Tectospinal

Vestibulospinal
Which of the following tracts are sensory?

Posterior Columns
Dorsal Spinocerebellar

Ventral Spinocerebellar

Dorsal Spinocerebellar

Lateral Spinothalamic
The extrinsic muscles of the eye are derived from which of the following?

Occipital Somites

Which type of articulation is located between vertebral arches?


Symphysis

The cell bodies of the gustatory fibers from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue are located in which ganglion?


Geniculate

Which suboccipital muscle rotates the atlas on the axis?


Obliques Capitus Inferior

The TVP forms the attachment for which of the following muscles?


Levator Scapulae


Which of the following motor tracts is responsible for voluntary movement?


Lateral Corticospinal

Which of the following motor tracts is responsible for voluntary movement to distal extremities?


Ventral Corticospinal

Which of the following motor tracts mediate equilibrium?


Olivospinal

Which of the following motor tracts controls posterior musculature above T6 & anterior musculature below T6?


Reticulospinal

Which of the following motor tracts is responsible for the flexors of the proximal upper limbs?


Rubrospinal

Which of the following motor tracts controls the reflex from vision & hearing that turns the head?


Tectospinal

Which of the following motor tracts controls medial extensor muscles of the back?


Vestibulospinal

The pelvic diaphragm is primarily made up of what muscle?


Levator Ani

The ocular motor nerve does not innervate which of the following muscles of the eye?


Superior Oblique

A typical thoracic vertebra has how many zygopophyseal joints?



4

Which of the following are the posterior columns responsible for?


Conscious Proprioception


Position Sense

Two Point Discrimination

Vibration
Which of the following sensory tracts is responsible for touch & pressure?
Ventral Spinothalamic

Which of the following sensory tracts is responsible for pain & temperature?


Lateral Spinothalamic

Which of the following sensory tracts is responsible for unconscious proprioception of the upper extremities?


Dorsal Spinocerebellar

Which vertebral structure forms the superior & inferior borders of the IVF?


Pedicle

Vertebral formation is a result of which of the following?


Endochondral Os

Which receptors are not sensory to the epidermis?


Merkel’s Endings = Deep Touch

The glabella is part of which of the following bones?


Frontal

The feature that is unique to the cervical spine is what?


Transverse Foramina

Which of the following cells of the retina form axons of the optic nerve?


Ganglion Cells

The visual pathway does not include which of the following?


Medial Geniculate Body

Flexion of the hip is the primary action of which of the following muscles?


Psoas

The spinal nerve from L4-S3 forms which of the following nerves?


Sciatic

What structure is located between the articulating surfaces of the TMJ?


Articular Disc

The carotid canal goes through which bone?


Temporal

Fast conducting axons are made of ________ fibers with a _______diameter.


Myelinated, Large

Which of the following ligaments has attachments to the disc?


PLL

The embryological development of the extensor muscles is derived from which of the following?


Epimeric Mesoderm

Due to the positioning of the ligaments a disc herniation will go?


Posteroloateral

What is the name of the ligament that connects the external occipital protuberance with the spinous process of C7?


Nuchal Ligament

Which ligament separates the greater sciatic foramen from the lesser sciatic foramen?


Sacrospinous

The coupling action of lateral flexion with _____________ is due to the orientation of mid-cervical articular facets?


Contralateral Rotation

Which of the following attaches to the coronoid process of the mandible?


Temporalis Muscle

Which structure lies between the temporal & sphenoid bones?


Foramen Lacerum

Which of the following are stimulated by preganglionic sympathetic fibers?


Adrenal Medulla

Rods & cones of the retina synapse @ which of the following cells?


Bipolar

The dorsal funiculus supplies which of the following structures?


Fasciculus Gracilis

The medullary pyramids contain which fibers?


Corticospinal

Which portion of the lumbar vertebra is between the superior & inferior articular process?


Pars Interarticularis

Which of the following peduncles connects the pons to the hindbrain?


Middle Cerebellar

Which of the following nerves supplies the SCM?


Spinal Accessory (CN XI)

Which of the following is derived from dura mater?


Sclera

Which of the following comprise the white rami communicantes?


Preganglionic Sympathetics

Which of the following supplies stimulation to the zygopophyseal joints?


Dorsal Rami

Which of the following cranial nerves supply muscles derived from the 1st pharyngeal arch?


Trigeminal (CN V)

The carotid tubercle is located on which vertebra?


C6

Which of the following is an auditory receptor?


Organ of Corti

The cerebellum & pons are part of which primitive structure?


Rhombencephalon

Which of the following types of glial cells form myelin around the axons of the central nervous system?


Oligodendrocytes

Which of the following bones undergoes intramembranous ossification?


Parietal

The final synapse for the somesthetic sensory neurons is located in the ___________.


Thalamus

The dorsal root ganglion, autonomic ganglion, & schwan cells are derived from which of the following embryonic structures?


Neural Crest

The dorsal lateral fasciculus does not transmit sensation of _______.


Pain

The limbic system is not responsible for which of the following?


Initiation of Muscle Contraction


The long thoracic nerve innervates which of the following muscles?


Serratus Anterior

On which part of the rib is the costal groove located?


Shaft

Which of the following is the pathway for conscious proprioception in the brainstem?


Medial Lemniscus

The gray mater of the spinal cord primarily consists of ___________.


Nerve Cell Bodies

Which muscle attaches to the articular processes of C3 through C6?


Semispinalis Muscle

The anterior superior aspect of the vertebral body of S1 is the sacral _________.


Promontory

Which of the following structures is found in the cistern of the lumbar region of the spine?


Cauda Equina

Which of the following structures does not attach the axis to the occipital bone?


Denticulate ligament

The spinothalamic & medial lemniscal tracts send neurons through the thalamus to which of the following gyri?


Post Central

The superior cerebral vein drains into which of the following?


Superior Sagittal Sinus

At the level of the T4 & T5 vertebra, which structure is located anteriorly on the sternum?


Angle of Louis


Which of the following muscles is supplied by the facial nerve?


Posterior Digastric

The dorsal funiculus supplies which of the following structures?


Fascicules Gracilis

The medullary pyramids contain which fibers?


Corticospinal

Which of the following structures is a continuation of the ligamentum nuchae?


Supraspinous Ligament

Axons in the olfactory tract originate from ___________ cells.


Mitral

Which of the following contains the inferior orbital fissure?


Sphenoid Bone

Which of the following is transmitted through the foramen ovale?


Mandibular Nerve

The crista ampularis is a feature of which of the following?


Semicochlear Duct

Cerebrospinal fluid is normally contained within the _________space.


Subarachnoid

What is the orientation of the inferior articular facets in the lumbars?


Anterior & Lateral

Which of the following cranial nerves originates from the 2nd pharyngeal arch?


Facial (CN VII)

Which of the following cranial nerves goes through the cribiform plate?


Olfactory (CN I)


The gray rami communicantes contain which of the following fibers?


Postganglionic Sympathetics

The most common direction for a disc to herniate is ___________.


Posterolateral

The internal jugular vein drains which of the following?


Sigmoid Sinus

At which level of the spinal cord is the conus medularis found?


L1-L2

Which cell will extend from the premotor cortex all the way down the spinal cord?


Pyramidal Cells

The trigeminal nerve travels through the cerebrospinal fluid via which cistern?


Pontine

Which of the following vertebra have a pair of full costal facets & 1 pair of demi facets?


T1

Which of the following arteries supply the pons?


Basilar Artery

The superior continuation of the posterior longitudinal ligament is the __________________?


Tectorial Membrane

A posterior ponticle results from calcification of which of the following ligaments?


Posterior Atlanto-Occipital

Which of the following cervical vertebra does not have a bifid spinous process?


C7


Which ligament attaches the TVP of L5 to the iliac crest?


Superior band of the Iliolumbar Ligament

Which of the following cranial nerves innervates the superior oblique muscles of the eye?



Trochlear (CN IV)
Which of the following supplies cutaneous innervation to the low back?

Posterior Primary Rami

Which of the following is excitatory to the pars compacta of the substantia nigra?


Glutamate

At the tip of the lateral aspect of the dens there are 2 small grooves for the attachment of which of the following?


Alar Ligament

The clivus is composed of the sphenoid bone & the _________.


Occipital Bone

The splenius capitis muscle inserts into which of the following?


Mastoid Process

What is the function of the emissary vein?

Connects the Inracranial Venous Sinuses with the outside Cranium
There is no intervertebral disc in which of the following locations?

C1-C2

The uncus & amygdyloid receive fibers from the ____________.


Olfactory Bulb

The joint between the occiput & C1 is which type?


Condylar


Which of the following cranial nerves innervate the medial pterygoid muscle?


Trigeminal (CN V)

Which of the following segmental levels comprises the phrenic nerve?


C3, C4, C5

The vertebral arteries enter the skull through which foramen?


Foramen Magnum

Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers of the oculomotor nerve synape @ the ___________ ganglion.


Ciliary

What is the location of the vertebral venous plexus?


Epidural Space

Which of the following ligaments is broadest in the cervical region?


Posterior Longitudinal Ligament

Innervation of the deltoid muscle is derived from which of the following spinal areas?


C5-C6

Microglial cells are derived from which of the following?


Mesenchymal Cells

The 2nd spinal nerve exits between ______ & ______.


C1, C2

Tic doulourtex is associated with what?


Trigeminal Nerve (CN V)

Primary innervation to the rhomboids is from which vertebral level?


C5

The inguinal ligament lies inferior to which of the following?


External Oblique Muscles


What is the structure located between the spinous process & the TVP?


Lamina

What type of joint is a costovertebral joint?


Synovial

Joints with hyaline cartilage are known as what type(s)?


Synchondrosis & Diarthrodial

What is the most common displacement of the nucleus pulposes?


Posteriolateral

The middle meningeal artery passes through ___________.


Foramen Spinosum

Which of the following muscles does not attach to the first rib?


Scalenes Posterior

The inion is a landmark of what bone?



Occipital Bone
Where is the anterior clinoid process located?

Lesser Wing of the Sphenoid

The axial skeleton is derived from ___________.


Somatic Sclerotome

Pars Interarticularis is located where?


Between Superior & Inferior Articular Processes

Which of the following has a bifid spinous process?


C4

Thoracic vertebras have how many synovial articulations?



10
Name the rib that connects thoracic vertebra and has a full set of articular facets?

10th Rib
The intermedial sacral crest is formed by fusion of the ___________.

Articular Processes

Accessory processes of lumbar vertebra arise from the junction of ________ & _______.


TVP’s & Pedicles

The posterior portion of the IVF is formed by __________________.


Articular Processes

Borders of the vertebral canal include which of the following?


PLL & Flava Ligaments

Which of the following maintain the normal spatial relationship between the odontoid process & the atlas?


Cruciform Ligament

Uncinate processes are located on which of the following?


Cervical Vertebra

Which of the following attaches to the scapula?


Pectoralis Minor

Which of the following muscles is deepest in the abdominal wall?


Transverse Abdominus

Which of the following is located @ the inferior border of the external oblique muscle?


Inguinal Ligament

Which of the following is not part of the pelvic diaphragm?


Piriformis Muscle

Which of the following is not part of the formation of the central tendon of perinues?


Ischial Canvernosus Muscle

Which of the following is supplied by the trochlear nerve (CN IV)?


Superior Oblique Muscle

Which of the following is not innervated by the facial nerve (CN VII)?


Masseter

Which of the following is the most superficial muscle of the neck?


Splenius Capitis Muscle

Which of the following innervates psoas major?


L1-L3

Which of the following muscles protrude the tongue?


Genioglossus

Which of the following attaches to the anterior portion of the TVP’s?


Quadratus Lumborum

Which of the following is attached to a midline process?


Multifidus Muscle

Where is the Medial Lemniscus located?


Medulla

What is the function of the posterior obliques capitis muscle?


Attaches C1 to the Occiput

What innervates levator scapulae?


Posterior Primary Rami

Pressure in the IVD occurs during ___________.


Compression

What is the range of motion most restricted in the thoracics?


Extension

Articular facet orientation in the lumbars is most restricted in ___________.


Rotation

What type of joints are zygopophyseal joints?


Diarthrodial Joints

What type of joint is the sternoclavicular?


Diarthrodial

Articulations of the sphenoid bone with other bones form what?


Fibrous Joints

What does the posterior longitudinal ligament (PLL), attach to?


Vertebral Bodies

What attaches the dens to the anterior part of the foramen magnum?


Apical Ligament

Which of the following attaches to the lamina of adjacent vertebra?


Ligamentum Flava

Articular facets of the lumbar spine are angled @ _____ to the transverse plane.



90
Where do the Posterior Columns & the Spinothalamic Tracts merge?

@ The Medial Lemniscus
Name the temporomandibular joint ligament that attaches to the lingula of the mandible?

Sphenomandibular Ligament

The sacrotuberous ligament is continuous with the ________________________.


Dorsal Sacroiliac Ligament

Where is the carotid tubercle located?


C6 TVP

Branches of the _______________ supply the anterior fasciculus.


Anterior Spinal Artery


What does the interventricular foramen of Monroe connect?



3rd & 4th Ventricles
Which of the following produces cerebrospinal fluid?

Choroid Plexus

The choroid plexus is composed of vascularized ____________.


Ependymal Cells

The most important synapse in the CNS is ____________.


Axodendritic

Maintaining consciousness & awareness is a function of the ________________.


Reticular Formation

Spinothalamic tracts are all found where?


In the same area of the Spinal Cord

Facets in the thoracic spine are directed ______________.


Coronally

Which of the following are separated by the coronal suture?


Parietal & Frontal Bones

What passes through foramen rotundum?


Maxillary Nerve

Foramen Spinosum contains the __________________.


Middle Meningeal Artery

Obstruction of the foramen of Monroe would produce a pressure build up where?


Lateral Ventricles

Where do pyramidal tracts decussate?


Medulla

Name all of the cranial nerves that are parasympathetic?


CN III, VII, IX, X

What part of the vertebra bears the greatest amount of weight?


Body

The optic nerve (CN II), exits the cranial vault via the ____________.


Optic Canal

Which of the following fibers direct pain?


Free Nerve Endings

What splanchnic nerve is derived from spinal nervesT10-T11?


Lesser Splanchnic Nerve

Globus pallidus will transmit information to the ___________.


Cortex

Cerebro, ponto & cerebellar tracts are involved in the ____________.


Coordination of Movements

The tectospinal tract is responsible for ______________.


Rotation of the Cervical Spine

The oculomotor nerve (CN III) innervates the ________________.


Levator Palpebrae Superioris

The 4th ventricle is continuous with the _________________.


Subarachnoid Space

The Nuchal ligament is a continuation of the _____________.


Supraspinous Ligament

Which part of the vertebra contains the groove for the vertebral artery?


Posterior Arch

At which vertebral level does the vertebral artery enter the spine?


C6

The posterior chamber of the eye is located between the _____ & _____?


Iris & Lens

What cervical nerve root innervates the base of the skull to the vertex of the skull?


C1-C2

Which bone contains Perilymph?


Petrous part of the Temporal Bone

The posterior groove on the odontoid process is for what ligament?


Transverse

Destruction of the posterior columns results in loss of __________.


Vibration Sense

What is a remnant of the notochord?


Nucleus Pulposis

The spinal cord is widest at which of the following?



  1. C1

A.C6


  1. T12

  2. L3

Normal orientation of the thoracic TVP’s is _______________.



45 Posteriolateral
Auditory fibers are contained in the _____________________.

Lateral Lemniscus

What is an example of a fibrocartilage joint?


Symphysis

Apophyseal joints use which structures for articulation?


Articular Processes


The superior petrosal vein drains into the ______________.


Sigmoid Sinus

The climbing fibers in the cerebellum originate in the ____________.


Olivary Nucleus

Somatic visceral primary neurons are derived from ______________.


Neural Crest Cells

Inability to move the jaw laterally would indicate damage to the ______________.


Trigeminal Nerve (CN V)

Which of the following muscles is derived from the 3rd brachial arch?


Stylopharyngeus

Which of the following is confluent with the central canal of the spinal cord?



4th Ventricle
Which of the following areas has no rods or cones?

  1. Fovea

  2. Macula

  3. Periphery of the Retina
  4. Optic Disc

What are the 2 functions of the ear?


Hearing & Balance

Physiological extension of the lumbar spine ________ the IVF’s & __________ the spinal canal.


Shortens, Shortens

Which of the following is responsible for initiation of spoken language?

Inferior Frontal Area (Brain)
The clivus is on the ____________.

Sphenoid Bone

Internal arcuate fibers are part of the __________________.


Corticospinal Tract

Which of the following decussates in the anterior white commissure?


Spinothalamic Tract

Which of the following is responsible for detection of angular motion?


Cristae Ampularis

The multifidus is most pronounced in the __________ area.


Lumbar

Which of the following is located in the posterior chamber of the eye?


Vitreous Humor

Which of the following is located on the cribiform plate?


Olfactory Nerve (CN I)

The sacral plexus lies anterior to the ______________.


Piriformis Muscle

Which of the following is a branch from the posterior cord of segments C5-C6?


Axillary Nerve

The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve is derived from which of the following vertebral levels?


L2-L3

The cingulate gyrus is part of the ___________.


Limbic System

The sympathetic nervous system is found from T1 to L2 & originates from the ______________________.


Intermediolateral Cell Column

The nucleus pulposis is a remnant of the __________.


Notochord


The epineurium is a continuation of the ____________.


Dura Mater

The anterior spinal artery is a branch of the _____________.


Vertebral Artery

What are the sacral splanchnic nerves considered to be?


Preganglionic Sympathetics

Name the nuclei responsible for pain?


Substantia Gelatinosa

What is the termination point for the spinothalamic tract?


Ventral Posteriolateral Nucleus of the Thalamus

Parts of a typical vertebra that correspond to the intermediate sacral crest are the _______________.


Articular Pillars

Parts of a typical vertebra that correspond to the median sacral crest are ________________.


Spinous Processes

Imbrication (facet jamming) is most commonly seen @ what vertebral level?


T5-T8

Which of the following passes through foramen spinosum?


Middle Meningeal Artery

Which of the following connects to the tympanic membrane?


Malleus

Which of the following supply the lateral cerebrum & the temporal lobe of the brain?


Middle Cerebral Artery

A branch of the _____________ supplies the anterior spinal cord.


Vertebral Artery

The anterior horn of the lateral ventricles comes into contact with the __________________________.


Head of the Caudate Nucleus

A lesion on which of the following nerves causes Bell’s palsy?


Facial (CN VII)

Medial deviation of the eye results from damage to which of the following muscles?


Lateral Rectus

Which of the following develops from the metencephalon?


Cerebellum & Pons

Which of the following are considered transducers of the ears?


Hair Cells

Which of the following innervates the scalenus anterior muscle?


Ventral Primary Rami

The muscles of mastication are derived from ______________.


Somatic Mesoderm

What type of joint is the temporomandibular joint?


Synovial

The radiating, expanding processes that connect capillaries or neurons are called ______________.


Astrocytes

Which of the following is a branch of the lateral cord of the brachial plexus?


Musculocutaneous Nerve

The optic nerve (CN II), synapses on which of the following?


Lateral Geniculate Body

Which of the following supplies the lateral temporal lobe of the brain?


Middle Cerebral Artery

Dentate ligaments attach to the ___________.


Dura Mater

Which of the following are projections of pia mater?


Dentate Ligaments

The atlas-axis articulation is considered to be a _____________.


Pivot Joint

Flexion & extension of the atlas in relation to the occiput occurs in the ____________.


Sagittal Plane

Lateral flexion of the atlas in relation to the occiput occurs in the ____________.


Coronal Plane

Which of the following runs along the atlas TVP?


Suboccipital Nerve

Which of the following does the posterior primary rami of the spinal nerve supply?


Semispinalis


Splenius Capitis

Splenius Cervicis
Which of the following does the anterior primary rami of the spinal nerve supply?

Levator Scapulae

Damage to which of the following nerves would result in loss of the ability to plantar flex the foot?


Tibial Nerve

Which of the following ligaments hold the dens in place?


Transverse Ligament


Which of the following is part of the cervical plexus?

Ansa Cervicalis

Lesser Occipital

Phrenic
What is the orientation of the superior facets in the lumbar spine?

Sagittal

What is the orientation of the inferior facets in the lumbar spine?

Sagittal (also)
The pelvic diaphragm is primarily made up of ____________.

Levator Ani

Which of the following are responsible for detecting insignificant vibration?


Pacinian Corpuscles

Which of the following supply innervation to the taste buds of the epiglottis?


Vagus (CN X)

The IVF’s are located inferior to the ___________.


Pedicles

The spinocerebellar tract carries __________________.


Unconscious Proprioception

The gracilis & cuneatus tracts carry _______________.


Conscious Proprioception

Which of the following is the final point of synapse for olfaction?


Uncus of the Temporal Lobe

Which of the following separates the occipital & parietal lobes?


Lambdoidal Suture

The IVD is considered which type of joint?


Symphysis

Which of the following lies in the epidural space?


Venous Plexus

The olfactory nerve (CN I), passes through which of the following bones?


Ethmoid

The scalene tubercle is located where?



1st Rib
The oral cavity of the esophagus is lined with _________________.

Non-Keratinized Stratified Squamous Epithelium

Which spinal tract is for voluntary motor control?


Corticospinal

Which of the following represents the middle layer of the meninges?


Arachnoid

Transverse sinus crosses which 2 cranial bones?


Occipital & Temporal

Which of the following deep layers of back muscle is most medial?


Spinalis

Fusion of the __________ form spinous processes.


Lamina

Fibers of the ___________ project & synapse @ the uncus & hippocampus.


Olfactory Bulb

Which of the following cells synapse deep within the cerebellum?


Purkinje

What are type C fibers responsible for?


Nociception

The articular facets of the 3rd rib articulate superiorly with ________.


T2

The adult spine is derived from which of the following embryonic spinal cord structures?


Gray Mater

The mamillary processes are on which part of the lumbar vertebra?


Superior Articular Facets

The S1 facets face in which direction?


Dorsomedial

Which of the following vertebra have the smallest TVP?


T12

When the mouth opens wide the TMJ disc moves ____________.


Anterior

Which of the following ligaments prevent lateral flexion of the spine?


Intertransverse

The femoral nerve innervates which of the following?


Vastas Lateralis

Which of the following is a continuation of the dorsal primary root of C2?


C1

Which of the following spinal levels innervate the thumb?


C6

Which of the following is the dermatome of the umbilicus?


T10

The nerves of olfaction synapse on which of the following nuclei?


Mitral Nucleus

Which of the following transmits information into the uncus?


Olfactory Bulb

Which of the following is not a cerebellar function?


Initiation of Voluntary Movement

The lumbar plexus forms in which structure?


Psoas Major

Which of the following are formed from occipital myotomes?


Muscles of the Tongue

What are the spinal pyramids a part of?


Medulla Oblongata

What does the cerebellum arise from?


Rhombencephalon

Which of the following cells produces CSF?


Ependymal Cells

Which of the following drains the aqueous humor of the eye?


Canal of Schlem

Which of the following provides sensation to the nape of the neck?


Lesser Occipital Nerve

The hypothalamus is derived from the _____________.


Diencephalon

Which of the following is the end of the spinal cord?


Conus Medularis

The anterior parahippocampal gyrus supplies the _________.


Uncus

Which of the following ligaments attach the head of a rib to the vertebra?


Radiate

The lateral spinothalamic tract decussates where?


Anterior White Commissure

Where is the sella tursica found?


Sphenoid Bone

Which of the following is a macrophage of the CNS?


Oligodendrocytes

Geniculate bodies are located in the ___________.


Thalamus

The posterior 1/3 of the tongue tastes which flavor?


Bitter

S2 –S4 are considered to be ______________.


Preganglionic Parasympathetic

The oculomotor nerve (CN III) innervates which of the following muscles?


Levator Palpebrae Superioris

The posterior inferior serratus is innervated by the ________________________.


Lower 4 Intercostal Nerves

The IVD is composed of which type of cartilage?


Fibrocartilage

The median sacral crest is formed by remnants of the ____________.


Spinous Processes

The stapes is derived from which embryological structure?



2nd Brachial Arch
Endolymph flows through the ________________.

Temporal Bone

The transitional vertebra from the cervicals to the thoracics is ____.


C7

Damage to the pons will affect which of the following cranial nerves?


Trigeminal (CN V)

Striae of the cochlea produce ___________.


Perilymph

Which of the following cranial nerves provides sensory innervation to the paranasal sinus?


Trigeminal (CN V)

The superior gluteal nerve supplies which of the following?



Gluteus Medius

Gluteus Minimus


Tensor Fascia Lata
What is the prominence on the superior facet of the lumbar vertebra?

Mamillary Process

The uncinate processes of C3-C7 are located where?


Vertebral Bodies

Which of the following cranial nerves innervate the buccinator muscle?


Trigeminal (CN V)

Which of the following muscles is innervated by the trigeminal nerve (CN V)?


Mylohyoid

The internal capsule separates the lenticulate nucleus from the ___________.


Caudate Nucleus

The articular processes between 2 thoracic vertebras make up what type of joint?


Planar or Gliding

Which of the following cranial nerves innervates the platysma?


Facial (CN VII)

Which of the following ligaments prevents forward displacement of the IVD?

Anterior Longitudinal Ligament (ALL)
Which of the following guides flexion & extension in the cervical spine?

Uncinate Processes

Which of the following bones is not part of the orbit or eye socket?


Temporal Bone

Which of the following muscles forms part of the anterolateral pelvic wall?


Obturator Internis

The middle trunk of the brachial plexus is @______.


C7

Which of the following vertebra has dual demi facets & dual costal facets?


T4

Which of the following is not on the temporal bone?


Temporal Line

Which of the following is a continuation of ligamentum nuchae?


Supraspinous Ligament

Where do climbing fibers of the cerebellum originate?


Olivary Nucleus

Where does the lacrimal gland drain?


Inferior Meatus of the Nasal Fossa

Where are the inferior & superior vertebral notches located?


Pedicles

Which of the following muscles depress the lower 4 ribs?


Serratus Posterior Inferior

The Intermediolateral cell column between T1 & L2 receives innervation from ___________.


Sympathetic Nerves

Where is the insertion point for splenius capitis?


Mastoid Process

Compression of the IVD is least during which spinal movement?


Rotation

Which of the following are synovial joints?



Costovertebral

Sternoclavicular

TMJ
Which of the following separates 2 shallow grooves, which traverse the superior edge of the 1st rib?

Scalene Tubercle

Which of the following has paired full costal facets & paired demi facets?


T1

Which of the following innervates vastus lateralis?


Femoral Nerve

Somites are composed of which of the following?



Mesoderm

Myotome

Sclerotome

Which of the following do sensory reflexes travel through?


Gray Mater

Fibrocartilage unites bone in the _________ & ___________.


IVD & Symphysis

Which of the following is a primary flexor of the lumbar spine?


Rectus Abdominus

Which of the following is a macrophage of the brain?


Microglial Cell

Which of the following is a sinus that drains directly into the internal jugular vein?


Sigmoid Sinus

Which of the following is most responsible for lateral flexion in the lumbar spine?


T12-L1

Which of the following is the embryological structure that the thymus is derived from?



3rd Pharyngeal Arch
Which of the following does not close the IVF?

Flexion

Where are hair cells of the ear located?


Macula

Where do 2nd order fibers for the sensation of facial pain come from?


Trigeminothalamic Tract

A unilateral hemorrhage of the anterior cerebral artery will cause a functional problem where.


Contralateral Lower Extremity

The sternal angle is @ the transverse plane of the _____________.



4th Thoracic Disc
How are superior articular facets of a typical lumbar vertebra oriented?

Medially


How are superior articular facets of a typical thoracic vertebra oriented?


Coronal

How are superior articular facets of a typical cervical vertebra oriented?


Oblique

Extensor musculature of the spine gets its nerve supply from where?


Dorsal Primary Rami

What does the sacrotuberous ligament restrict?


Flexion

Which of the following is the carotid tubercle a feature of?


C6

The vertebral artery passes through the ________________.


Posterior Atlanto-Occipital Ligament

Which is the most lateral erector spinae muscle?


Iliocostalis

Which of the following is part of the auditory tract?


Trapezoid Body

Which of the following forms part of the boundary of the vertebral canal?

Anterior Longitudinal Ligament (ALL)
Which of the following is responsible for loss of short-term memory due to emotion or trauma?

Limbus

Which of the following supply blood to the motor speech area of the brain (Broca’s Area)?


Middle Cerebral Artery


Paralysis of the abducent nerve (CN VI) would cause _________ deviation of the eye.


Medial

Paralysis of the oculomotor nerve (CN III) would cause _________ deviation of the eye.


Downward

The cribiform plate is located on the __________ bone.


Ethmoid

The __________________ innervates serratus anterior.


Long Thoracic Nerve

The muscles of mastication are derived from where?



Mesoderm of the 1st Pharyngeal Arch
Which of the following contain Type A motor nerve axons?

Ventral Root

The semicircular canal develops as an outgrowth of the _________.


Utricle

Which of the following cranial nerves has its origin in the medulla oblongata?


Hypoglossal Nerve (CN XII)

A lesion in the_________________ causes Parkinson’s.


Substantia Nigra

Which of the following are nerves from the conus medularis?


Cauda Equina

The center for voluntary control of eye movement is located where?


Frontal Lobe of the Brain

Which of the following makes up part of the hard palate?


Maxilla

The hyoid is attached via a ligament to the _________ portion of the temporal bone.


Styloid

The _________ does not articulate with the temporal bone.


Maxilla

Where are primary afferents located?


Dorsal Nerve Root

Where are primary efferents located?


Ventral Nerve Root

What does the femoral nerve supply?


Quadriceps

Where does the femoral nerve arise?


Ventral Rami of L2-L4

Which of the following is the attachment point for splenius capitis?


Mastoid Process

Where are sensory cell bodies of the spinal nerves found?


Dorsal Root Ganglion

If the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) is damaged, which gland will lose its function?


Parotid Gland

Which of the following are efferent cerebellar nerve cells?


Purkinje Cells

Which of the following does the peroneal branch of the pudendal nerve innervate?


Ischiocavernosus

Which of the following is the embryological structure that the notochord is derived from?


Mesoderm

Which of the following ligaments restricts rotation of the atlas-axis joint?


Alar Ligament

Which of the following forms the border of the lesser sciatic foramen?


Sacrotuberous Ligament

Which of the following originates on the anterior aspect of the sacrum?


Piriformis

Which of the following are responsible for cerebrospinal fluid production in the brain?


Ependymal Cells in the Lateral Ventricles

Which of the following is a major source of blood to the primary visual cortex?


Posterior Cerebral Artery

Which of the following is a major source of blood to the brainstem?


Basilar Artery

Which of the following form the anterior division of the lumbar plexus?


L1-L3

Which of the following is a continuation of the supraspinous ligament?


Ligamentum nuchae

Where does the lumbar cistern end?


S2

Where is the medulla oblongata located?


Myelencephalon

Where is the pons located?


Metencephalon

Where is the cerebellum located?


Metencephalon

Where is the cortex located?


Telencephalon

Where is the midbrain located?


Mesencephalon

Where is the red nucleus located?


Mesencephalon

Which of the following nerves supplies the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?


Facial (CN VII)

Which of the following cranial nerves supplies the posterior 1/3 of the tongue?


Glossopharyngeal (CN IX)

Which of the following cranial nerves originate from the midbrain?


Oculomotor (CN III)

The joints of Von Luschka are located @ which vertebral level(s)?


C3-C7

Which of the following is a continuation of the PLL?


Membrane Tectoria

Which of the following is a middle erector spinae muscle?


Longissimus

Which dermatome supplies the skin over the clavicle?


C4

Which of the following is unique to the cervical spine?


Transverse Vertebral Foramen

Which of the following cranial nerves is the geniculate ganglion involved with?


Facial (CN VII)


The submandibular ganglion supplies the submandibular gland via the ________________.


Facial Nerve (CN VII)

What is the principal motion(s) of the occiput on C1?


Flexion & Extension

Which of the following lies in the arcuate foramen?


Suboccipital Artery & Nerve

Which of the following attaches to the anterior tubercle of the atlas?


Longus Coli Muscle

Which of the following neurons are located in the cribiform plate?


Bipolar

The pyramidal cells of Betz are located in the ____________.


Precentral Gyrus

The dorsal funiculus includes which of the following structures?


Fasciculus Gracilus

Which of the following are stimulated by preganglionic sympathetic fibers?


Adrenal Medulla

Which of the following nerves supplies the SCM?

Spinal Accessory (CN XI)
Inflammation of the parotid gland inhibits which of the following nerves?

Facial (CN VII)


Rods & cones of the retina synapse @ ___________ cells.

Bipolar

Failure of the pupil to constrict when stimulated by a bright light indicates loss of integrity in which of the following?

Oculomotor Nerve (CN III)
__________ cells of the retina form axons of the optic nerve.

Ganglion

Flexion of the hip is the primary action of the ________ muscle.


Psoas

The extrinsic muscles of the eye are derived from which of the following?


Occipital Somites

Preoptic somites give rise to which of the following?


Olfaction

A typical thoracic vertebra has how many zygopophyseal joints?



4
A typical thoracic vertebra has how many synovial joints?

10
A typical thoracic vertebra has how many articulations?

12
Which of the following ribs articulates with the sternal notch?

Rib #2 @ the level of T4

Which of the following ligaments would sustain damage in hyperextension of the cervical spine?

Anterior Longitudinal Ligament (ALL)
Inflammation around the Pisiform bone may affect which of the following nerves?

Ulnar

Which of the following are germ layers?



Endoderm

Mesoderm

Ectoderm

Which of the following arise from endoderm?



Epithelium of the Respiratory Tract

GI Tract

Gut

Which of the following arise from mesoderm?



Adrenal Cortex

Cardiovascular System

Genitourinary Serous Membrane

Muscles of the Trunk
Which of the following arise from ectoderm?

Adrenal Medulla

CNS

Epidermis

Hair
PNS

Anterior Pituitary

Retina
Which of the following is a support cell in the blood brain barrier?
Astrocytes

Which of the following is a macrophage?


Microglia

Which of the following lines the ventricles & makes CSF?


Ependymal Cells

Which of the following makes myelin in the CNS?


Oligodendrocytes

Which of the following make myelin in the PNS?


Schwann Cells

How many lobes does the cerebellum have?



3

Which of the following is located in Lamina I?


Incoming Dorsal Roots

Which of the following is located in Lamina II?


Substantia Gelatinosa

Which of the following is located in Lamina III & IV?


Nucleus Proprius

Which of the following is located in Lamina IV?



Nucleus Proprius

Basal Spinal Nucleus
Which of the following is located in Lamina V?
Corticospinal Tract

Which of the following is located in Lamina VI?


Primary Sensory Neurons

Which of the following is located in Lamina VII?


Intermediolateral Cell Column – T1L2

Which of the following is located in Lamina VIII?


Descending Tracts

Which of the following is located in Lamina IX?


Large Motor Neurons

Which of the following is located in Lamina X?


Gray Commissure

Name the 3 lobes of the cerebellum?


Flocculonodular Lobe

Anterior Lobe

Posterior Lobe
What is the function of the flocculonodular lobe of the cerebellum?
Equilibrium

What is the function of the anterior & posterior lobes of the cerebellum?


Coordination

Which of the following is a relay station & contains sensory fibers?


Thalamus

Which of the following controls balance, equilibrium, & involuntary coordination?


Cerebellum

Which of the following are cerebellar nuclei?



Dentate

Emboliform

Fastigial

Globus (2)


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