1. Why have sheep and young cattle been used in cardiopulmonary research?
2. Name 3 zoonotic diseases of concern in ruminants.
3. ______________ is the causative agent of Q-fever.
4. The contagious ecthyma virus is an example of a _____ virus.
5. Name the 2 species of Brucella that are found in ruminants and can cause disease in humans.
6. T or F: Movement of ruminants between states is controlled?
7. Name 3 Clostridial species of concern in ruminants.
8. Restraint in _____ or _____ recumbency prevents ruminants from belching gas which can lead to bloat.
9. Bloat in ruminants can be minimized by withholding food for ____ to ____ hours.
10. Name 2 methods for relieving bloat in anesthetized ruminants.
11. Why should nitrous oxide be avoided in ruminants?
12. The use of what type of ventilation can help to prevent hypoventilation in ruminants?
13. Name and describe 2 types of regurgitation seen in anesthetized ruminants.
14. Name 3 things that can be done to prevent aspiration pneumonia during long term anesthesia of ruminants.
15. Name 2 compounds that can be used to reduce the amount of saliva produced by ruminants prior to intubation
16. Name three potential causes of post-anesthetic myopathy in ruminants
17. Name four superficial veins suitable for catheterization in ruminants.
18. Name a superficial artery that can be used for catheterization in ruminants.
19. Access to the carotid and femoral arteries is best achieved via a __________ procedure.
20. Lidocaine and mepivicaine are examples of ____ onset and _____ duration local anesthetics.
21. Bupivacaine is an example of _____ onset and _____ duration local anesthetic.
22. Name some clinical signs associated with local anesthetic toxicity in ruminants.
23. How is local anesthetic toxicity treated in ruminants?
24. A local block for dehorning of sheep and cattle involves blocking the ______ nerve while in goats the _____ and _____ nerves are blocked.
25. An epidural involves deposition of local anesthetic into the _______ space while a spinal involves deposition of local anesthetic into the _______ space.
26. Lumbosacral administration of local anesthetics can result in hindlimb _______.
27. T or F: A high spinal anesthetic can result in intercostals muscle dysfunction.
28. Name 6 factors that affect the extent of spinal anesthesia
29. Acepromazine is an example of a __________ tranquilizer.
30. T or F: Acepromazine when used alone provide analgesia.
31. Acepromazine administration results in mild peripheral __________ which can lead to hypotension.
32. Name 3 alpha 2 adrenergic agonists.
33. T or F: Xylazine provides dose dependent sedation but does not provide analgesia.
34. Name 3 cardiovascular side effects seen with xylazine administration.
35. T or F: Xylazine administration increases peripheral vascular resistance.
36. Midazolam and Diazepam are examples of what family of anesthetic agents?
37. Name the benzodiazepine antagonist available for reversing midazolam.
38. T or F: Benzodiazepines can cause excitement in ruminants
39. Tor F: At low doses pentobarbital acts as a sedative
40. Name the active metabolite of chloral hydrate. Where is this compound produced?
41. T or F: Chloral hydrate can be administered IM or SC.
42. T or F: There is significant variability in the analgesic and sedative response to opiates in ruminants.
43. What route of administration helps to reduce this variability?
44. Rapid elimination of pentobarbital is due to what type of metabolism?
45. Thiopental induction is advantageous because its use results in _____ onset, _______ duration of action and _______ recovery.
46. T or F: Recovery from thiopental is the result of liver metabolism
47. T or F: Thiopental is irritating if administered perivascularly
48. What drug has the shortest elimination half-life of any parenteral anesthetic drug in sheep?
49. Name 2 adverse clinical events that can result from bolus administration of propofol.
50. True or False: Propofol crosses the placental barrier.
51. Why does ketamine have a short duration of action?
52. The use of ketamine _________ heart rate, cardiac output and blood pressure.
53. Name the antagonist for medetomidine.
54. T or F: Telazol produces more profound anesthesia than ketamine-diazepam.
55. Guaifenesin is an example of a centrally acting _________.
56. Name 4 methods for intubation of ruminants
57. T or F: Administration of inhalant anesthetics results in increased arterial pressure, cardiac output and ventilation.
58. What three drugs are in “triple drip”?
59. Name three parameters that can be used to monitor anesthetic depth in ruminants.
60. A systemic blood pressure value below ______ mm Hg can result in inadequate tissue perfusion and decreased urine output.
61. Name 2 techniques for monitoring ventilatory function.
62. Name 3 situations where blood glucose should be monitored during procedures.
63. Name 3 drugs that can be used to treat hypotension.
64. When is behavior associated with pain most likely to be evident in ruminants?
65. Name some signs associated with pain in ruminants.
66. T or F: There are no biochemical markers of pain perception described in ruminants.
67. Name 3 advantages of preemptive analgesia.
68. T or F: fentanyl is a mixed mu agonist/antagonist
69. Name 3 nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS) used in ruminants
70. NSAIDs inhibit __________ which facilitates conversion of arachidonic acid to prostaglandins.
71. Name 3 alternative methods of providing analgesia to ruminants.