The lining mucosa is found on the



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Quiz 1 Name ________________________

1/9/07



  1. The lining mucosa is found on the _______________ :

    1. lips, cheeks, floor of the mouth and soft palate

    2. hard palate and alveolar ridges

    3. surface of the tongue

    4. none of the above




  1. The lamina propria consists of which two layers:

    1. hemidesmosomes and stratum granulosum

    2. stratum basale and stratum superficiale

    3. papillary and reticular

    4. basal and intermediate stratum layers




  1. _______________ papillae do not contain taste buds:

    1. Fungiform

    2. Filiform

    3. Circumvallate

    4. Foliate




  1. Which one of the following cell is a nonkeratinocyte see in the oral mucosal epithelium:

    1. Melanocyte

    2. Langerhan’s cell

    3. Merkel cell

    4. All of the above

Answers


  1. A

  2. C

  3. B

  4. D

Quiz 2 (01/16/07) Name:____________________________

DENT 5315
1. Salivary glands are normally not found in:

A. Buccal mucosa.

B. Soft palate.

C. Upper lip.

D. Free gingiva.
2. The terminal portion of the salivary ductal system that are in contact with serous cells is called:


  1. Intercalated duct

  2. Excretory duct

  3. Striated duct

  4. Stensons duct

3. All three germ layers (ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm) develop from which one of the following structures of the embryoblast:



  1. Epiblast

  2. Hypoblast

  3. Both

  4. None of the above




  1. The chorionic membrane consists of:

    1. epiblast, cytotrophoblast, and syncytiotrophoblast

    2. hypoblast, cytotrophoblast, and syncytiotrophoblast

    3. extraembryonic mesoderm, cytotrophoblast, and syncytiotrophoblast

    4. Heuser’s membrane, extraembryonic mesoderm, and cytotrophoblast

Answers


  1. D

  2. A

  3. A

  4. C

Quiz 3 (1/23/07) Name: ___________________________________

DENT 5315


1. Which of the following statements concerning the tympanic cavity is correct?
A. It is of endodermal origin*
B. It develops from pharyngeal pouch 3
C. The malleus and incus develop from pharyngeal arch 3
D. The stapes develops from pharyngeal arch 4
2. The neurectoderm gives rise to the
A. dilator pupillae muscle
B. retina*
C. lens
D. sclera
E. choroid
3. Which pharyngeal arch arteries give rise to the majority of the vessels that supply blood to the head and neck?

A. Pharyngeal arch arteries 1

B. Pharyngeal arch arteries 2

C. Pharyngeal arch arteries 3*

D. Pharyngeal arch arteries 4

E. Pharyngeal arch arteries 6


4. What is the origin of the definitive myocardium of the adult heart?

A. Endoderm

B. Somatopleuric mesoderm

C. Splanchnopleuric mesoderm*

D. Hypoblast

DENT 5315 Name: _________________________

Quiz 4 (1/30/07)
1. The proximal convoluted tubules of the definitive adult kidney are derived from the:

A. ureteric bud

B. metanephric vesicle

C. mesonephric duct

D. mesonephric tubules

E. pronephric tubules


2. Which cells of the male genital system produce testosterone?

A. pre-Sertoli cells

B. Sertoli cells

C. Leydig cells

D. Glandular acini

E. Cortical sex cords




  1. Embryonic connective tissue in the head is derived from:

    1. mesoderm

    2. endoderm

    3. notocord

    4. neuroectoderm




  1. The outer aspect of all branchial arches is covered by ectoderm and the inner aspect of all branchial arches is covered by endoderm.

A. True

B. False
Answers:



  1. B

  2. C

  3. D

  4. B

dOral Histology, Embryology and Genetics

Quiz 5 (2/13/07) NAME:


  1. Which of the following give rise to odontoblasts:

    1. Inner dental epithelial cells

    2. Ectomesenchymal cells*

    3. Cells of the dental follicle

    4. Outer dental epithelial cells




  1. The inner dental epithelium

    1. Is the only layer of enamel organ that is closest to blood vessels

    2. Will form the ameloblasts*

    3. Becomes the dental pulp

    4. Will combine with cells of dental papilla to form the root sheath




  1. From which of the following is the periodontal ligament derived

  1. Dental follicle*

  2. Enamel organ

  3. Dental papilla

  4. Epithelial root sheath




  1. Permanent mandibular 2nd premolar tooth bud will develop:

    1. Anterior to mandibular deciduous 2nd molar

    2. Lingual to mandibular deciduous 2nd molar*

    3. Posterior to mandibular deciduous 2nd molar

    4. As a separate tooth bud buccal to the mandibular deciduous 2nd molar

QUIZ DENT 5315/OBIO 8024 Oral Histology, Embryology, and Genetics 2-20-2007


NAME:

Circle the TRUE statements in the following list: (4 statements are TRUE.)
A. Erosion and caries are similar in that both involve a chemical insult to the tooth.*

B. Circumpulpal dentin and Hertwig's epithelial root sheath have the same embryological origin.


C. The organic content of enamel is a crystalline calcium phosphate (hydroxyapatite) substituted with carbonate ions.
D. Secondary dentin develops after root formation has been completed and continues throughout the life of the tooth.*
E. A layer of predentin is always found between odontoblasts and the mineralization front in dentin.*
F. Impaired translucence of enamel creates optical white spots.*
G. Enamel formation always precedes dentin formation.
H. The primary function of ruffle-ended ameloblasts is to remove water and proteins from enamel.
I. Von Korff fibers participate in the formation of dental cysts.
J. Dentin is a nonvital tissue, incapable of regeneration.

Quiz 7: 2/27/07 Name: _________________________________

DENT 5315
1. The subodontoblastic plexus of Raschkow occurs:

A. Below the cell bodies of odontoblasts*

B. In the root region of the pulp

C. Within the central pulp core

D. within the cell-rich zone of Weil
2. What are intrinsic fibers of cementum?

A. Fibers produced by cementoblasts*

B. Noncalcified fibers associated with the attachment of periodontal ligament fibers

C. Principal fibers of the PDL

D. None of the above
3. Perforating fibers consisting of collagen fibers embedded in alveolar bone proper are known as:

A. Gingival fibers

B. Sharpey’s fibers*

C. Transseptal fibers

D. Alveolar fibers
4. Which type of gingival fibers attaches to cementum of adjacent teeth and is present over the alveolar crest?

A. Alveolar crest fibers

B. Alveologingival fibers

C. Transseptal fibers*

D. Circular fibers
ANSWERS


  1. A

  2. A

  3. B

  4. C

Quiz 8: 3/6/07 Name: _____________________________

DENT 5315

Circle the ONE BEST answer for each of the following:
1. The human temporomandibular joint is

A. Is classified as a syndesmosis.

B. A synovial sliding-ginglymoid joint.*

C. Formed directly from Meckel's cartilage.

D. Derived from ectoderm.

E. An example of a gomphosis.


2. The synovial membrane of the human temporomandibular joint

A. Does not cover the articular surfaces of the joint or disk, except

for its bilaminar posterior region.*

B. Is always thickest over the central portion of the disk.

C. Completely lines the glenoid fossa and covers the condylar head.

D. Divides the joint into upper and lower joint cavities.

E. Is composed of an ultra-thin layer of stratified squamous epithelium.
3. Which of the following stages of tooth eruption coincides with beginning of root formation?

A. Pre-eruptive phase

B. Eruptive phase*

C. Post-eruptive phase


4. Mesial drift is a major tooth movement that:

A. Accommodates the growing jaws

B. Accommodates interproximal tooth wear*

C. Compensates occlusal tooth wear

D. Is required for pre-eruptive tooth movement

ANSWERS


  1. B

  2. A

  3. B

  4. B

Quiz 9 DENT 5315

4/5/07 Name: _______________________


1. A female with a balanced Robertsonian translocation between chromosomes

14 and 21 would have all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Have clinical findings of Down syndrome*

B. Have increased risk of having a Down syndrome child

C. Have 45 chromosomes in her karyotype

D. Have increased risk for miscarriage


2. The human genome database contains:

A. The entire DNA sequence of the human genome

B. The locations of transcripts associated with genes

C. The location of common variants

D. All of the above*
3. Band 2p21 refers to:

A. Band 21 in the short arm of chromosome 2*

B. Band 21 in the long arm of chromosome 2

C. Band 2 in the short arm of chromosome 21

D. Band 2 in the long arm of chromosome 21
4. The result of a polymorphism in a gene can result in:

A. Reduce the expression of the gene

B. Directly affect protein function (amino acid substitution)

C. Alter mRNA processing or stability

D. Increase the expression of the gene

E. All of the above*

ANSWERS


  1. A

  2. D

  3. A

  4. E

DENT 5315 Name: ______________________________________

Quiz 10 (4/10/07)


1. Retinoblastoma is inherited as a dominant but on the cellular level behaves like a recessive. What does this mean?

A. All cells with the mutation are cancer.

B. The patient who inherits the mutant gene will never develop cancer.

C. Both parents must have a mutant gene to develop cancer.

D. A person inherits a mutant gene, but a second “hit” must occur in the normal copy of the gene for the cell to become cancer.*
2. Which ONE of the following statement is TRUE about Lyon’s hypothesis:

A. One Y chromosome is randomly inactivated in each cell

B. Both X chromosomes are inactivated in each cell

C. One X chromosome is randomly inactivated in each cell*

D. None of the above
3. Fred Jones is red-green color blind as is his son, Frank, but Frank’s mom, Freida, is not. However, as an expert in genetics, you know that red-green color blindness is inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern. What is the most likely explanation for the apparent inheritance of this trait in this family?


      1. Color blindness is a sex-limited trait occurring only in males

      2. Frank is probably not Fred’s biologic offspring

      3. Frank has a new mutation for red-green color blindness

      4. Freida is a carrier (heterozygote) for red-green color blindness*

4. All of the following statements are true about transmission of classic autosomal dominant disorders EXCEPT:

A. It is seen in multiple generations with no skipping of generations

B. Roughly both males and females are equally affected

C. Only females are typically affected*

D. Father to son transmission is noted


ANSWERS


  1. D

  2. C

  3. D

  4. C

Quiz 11 (4/17/07) NAME: ________________________________

DENT 5315


1. Which ONE of the following is a feature of complex diseases?

  1. Heritability cannot be assessed through twin or family studies

  2. Transmission through generations does not follow a simple mendelian pattern*

  3. It arises only through spontaneous mutations in somatic cell lines

  4. Complex diseases are generally very rare

2. Examples of genetic mechanisms responsible for craniofacial/cleft Lip and palate include all of the followings EXCEPT:



  1. Multifactorial etiology

  2. Polygenic etiology

  3. Teratogenic etiology

  4. It almost always has mendelian etiology*

3. Population-based case control studies generally assess genetic variation using:



  1. Micro-satellite markers

  2. Rare missense gene mutations

  3. Blood group antigens

  4. Single nucleotide polymorphisms*

4. The following statements are true about cleft lip and cleft palate EXCEPT:

A. They are the most common craniofacial disorders*

B. Cleft lip alone is more common than cleft lip + cleft palate

C. Unilateral defects are more common than bilateral defects

D. Ethnically the highest incidence has been reported in the Native American population


ANSWERS


  1. B

  2. D

  3. D

  4. A



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