Modul 1General Pathomorphology Text tests



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The most reliable evidence of purulent inflammation is the presence in tissue of which of the following:

  1. Lymphocytes

  2. Cellular necrosis

  3. Intracellular pigment accumulations

  4. *Neutrophils

  5. Plasma cells.

  • The most reliable histopathologic evidence of chronicity in an inflammatory process in organs is which of the following:

    1. Hemorrhages

    2. Leucocytic infiltrates

    3. Blood vessels destruction

    4. *Interstitial fibrosis

    5. Councilman's bodies

  • The neutrophils and monocytes are adherence to the vascular endothelium prior to movement into the extravascular space is called:

    1. Margination

    2. Diapedesis

    3. *Pavementing

    4. Emigration

    5. Clotting.

  • The pathologic changes of vasa vasonim of aorta in syphilitic mesaortitis are characterized by which of the following:

    1. Migratory thrombophlebitis

    2. *Productive vasculitis (obliterative endoarteritis)

    3. Thromboangitis obliterans

    4. Necrotizing arteriolitis

    5. Thrombotic microangiopathy

  • The plasma factors to be released during inflammation are all of the following, EXCEPT:

    1. Bradykinin

    2. Membrane attack sequence

    3. *Cationic proteins

    4. Thrombin

    5. Plasmin.

  • The possible causes of chronicity of inflammation are all of the following, EXCEPT:

    1. Persistent infections by certain microorganisms

    2. Prolonged exposure to potentially toxic gents, either exogenous or endogenous

    3. Autoimunity (autoimmune diseases)

    4. *Complete phagocytosis

    5. Resistance of the etiologic agent

  • The products released by the activated macrophages that lead to tissue injury, include all of the following, EXCEPT:

    1. *Fibrogenic cytokines

    2. Toxic oxygen metabolites

    3. Collagenases

    4. Neutrophile chemotactive factors

    5. Elastase

  • The purulent inflammation is characterized by which of the following:

    1. * Neutrophil infiltration with tissue lysis

    2. Fibrin deposition

    3. Mucus production

    4. Lymphocyte infiltration

    5. Neutrophil infiltration.

  • The unidirectional migration of leukocytes toward a target is referred to as:

    1. Diapedesis;

    2. * Chemotaxis;

    3. Opsonization;

    4. Endocytosis;

    5. Margination

  • Typical syphilis granuloma is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:

    1. Area of central necrosis

    2. Plasma cell infiltrate

    3. Lymphocyte infiltrate

    4. Productive vasculitis

    5. * Platelet infiltrate

  • Typical tyberculous granuloma is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:

    1. * Plasma cells

    2. Area of central necrosis

    3. Epithelioid cells

    4. Langhans-type giant cells

    5. Lymphocytes

  • What cells are known as "lepra cells" in lepromatous leprosy?:

    1. Foam cells filled with lipid droplets

    2. * Macrophages filled with masses of acid-fast bacilli

    3. Epitheliod cells

    4. Langhans-type giant cells

    5. Schwann's cells

  • What cells play the most important role in chronic tuberculous inflammation?:

    1. * Macrophages

    2. Leucocytes

    3. Eosinophils

    4. Erythrocytes

    5. Plasma cells

  • What is the first cells to arrive at the injured area in the inflammatory response are which of the following:

    1. *Neutrophils

    2. Fibroblasts

    3. Lymphocytes

    4. Macrophages

    5. Erythrocytes.

  • What is the mechanism lying in the basis of the pathogenesis of organ-nonspecific autoimmune diseases.:

    1. Disturbance of the physiological isolation of organs and tissues to which there is no physiological tolerance

    2. Appearance of new nonshared antigens in the rganism

    3. Atrophy of the lymphoid system

    4. * Disturbance of the immune homeostasis in the lymphoid system

    5. Cellular immunodeficiency

  • What is the most common formation in the body cavities and the spinal fluid is which of the following:

    1. Fibrinous inflammation

    2. * Serous inflammation

    3. Catarrhal inflammation

    4. Hemorrhagic inflammation

    5. Granulomatous inflammation.

  • What is the most reliable evidence of purulent inflammation is the presence in tissue of which of the following:

    1. Lymphocytes;

    2. Cellular necrosis;

    3. Intracellular pigment accumulations;

    4. * Neutrophils;

    5. Plasma cells.

  • What is the unidirectional migration of leukocytes toward a target:

    1. Diapedesis

    2. *Chemotaxis

    3. Opsonization

    4. Endocytosis

    5. Margination

  • What type of necrosis can be found in sarcoid granuloma?:

    1. Coagulative necrosis

    2. Caseous necrosis

    3. Liquefactive necrosis

    4. Enzymatic fat necrosis

    5. * Fibrinoid necrosis

  • What type of necrosis can be found in tuberculous granuloma?:

    1. Coagulation necrosis

    2. Liquefactive necrosis

    3. * Caseous necrosis

    4. Enzymatic fat necrosis

    5. Fibrinoid necrosis

  • When cells degenerate at the site of injury, all of the following may be released, EXCEPT:

    1. Lysosomal enzymes

    2. Vasoactive amines

    3. *Cyclooxygenase

    4. Kinins

    5. NO.

    1. A loss of CD4+ T cells resulting from HIV infection leads to the decrease of all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. Response to soluble antigens;

      2. Specific cytotoxicity;

      3. Killing of tumor cells;

      4. Lymphokine secretion;

      5. * Spontaneous secretion of IL-1.

    2. A main morphologic features of Graves disease include all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. Tall and crowded follicular epithelial cells;

      2. Small papillae into the follicular lumen;

      3. Lack of fibrovascular cores in papillae;

      4. Pale colloid with scalloped margins;

      5. * Large leukocytic aggregates in the stroma.

    3. A microscopic aggregation of the epithelioid cells, usually surrounded by a collar of lymphocytes is referred to as:

      1. Papilloma

      2. Condyloma

      3. Melanoma

      4. Lipoma

      5. * Granuloma.

    4. A most common cause of endogenous hyperthyroidism is which of the following:

      1. * Graves disease;

      2. Hashimoto thyroiditis;

      3. Subacute (granulomatous) thyroiditis;

      4. Tuberculosis;

      5. Sporadic goiter.

    5. A most common cause of the glomeruli damage in systemic lupus erythematosus is which of the following:

      1. Local anaphylaxis;

      2. * Immune complex injury;

      3. Immunologic tolerance;

      4. Genetic deficiency of themonocyte/macrophage system;

      5. Genetic deficiency of the complement system.

    6. A point out the mechanism which is the basis for classification of the hypersensitivity diseases.

      1. * Immunologic;

      2. Byochemical;

      3. Non-immunologic;

      4. Chemical;

      5. Physiologic.

    7. A replacement of the normal secretory columnar epithelium by the nonfunctioning stratified squamous epithelium may occur in all organs of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. Bile ducts of the liver;

      2. Excretory ducts of the salivary glands;

      3. Excretory ducts of the pancreas;

      4. Respiratory epithelium of the bronchi;

      5. * Tubular epithelium of the kidney.

    8. A state in which an individual is incapable of developing an immune response to a specific antigen is called:

      1. Arthus reaction

      2. Local anaphylaxis

      3. Complement-dependent reaction

      4. * Immunologic tolerance

      5. Systemic anaphylaxis.

    9. A type I hypersensitivity (anaphylactik type) is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. Occurs in humans previously sensitized to the antigen;

      2. Develops rapidly (within minutes);

      3. Mediates by IgE antibodies in humans;

      4. * Develops slowly (within days);

      5. Mast cell or basophil degranulation.

    10. All of the following cells are involved in immune response, EXCEPT:

      1. * Eeosinophils

      2. Macrophages

      3. Natural killer cells

      4. T lymphocytes

      5. B lymphocytes.

    11. All of the following diseases result from Type III hypersensithity (immune complex disorders), EXCEPT:

      1. Glomerulonephritis

      2. Farmer's lung

      3. * Myocardial infarction

      4. Hemolitic anemia

      5. Systemic lupus erythematosus

    12. Antinuclear antibodies in systemic lupus erythematosus are directed against all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. DNA

      2. Histones

      3. * Nuclear membrane

      4. Nonhiston proteins bound to RNA

      5. Nucleolar antigens.

    13. At morphologically exam, delayed-type hypersensitivity is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. Accumulation of the mononuclear cells around venules;

      2. Dermal edema;

      3. Deposition of fibrin in the interstitium of derma;

      4. Accumulation of the mononuclear cellsaround small vein;

      5. * Deposition of hemosiderin in the derma.

    14. Atrophy is characterized by which of the following:

      1. Variation of cells in size and shape

      2. Increase in the size of cells

      3. * Shrinkage in the size of cells by loss of cell substance

      4. Increase in the number of cells

      5. Abnormal organisation of cells.

    15. Autoimmune diseases involving a single organ or cell type are all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. Hashimoto thyroiditis

      2. Goodpasture’s syndrome

      3. Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus

      4. * Myocardial infarction

      5. Myasthenia gravis.

    16. Cardiac hypertrophy is characterized by all pathologic changes, EXCEPT:

      1. Increased number of myocardial cells

      2. Increased mass and size of the heart

      3. Increased protein synthesis

      4. Interstitial cardiac fibrosis

      5. Inadequate vasculature.

    17. CD4+ T cells influence the function of all of the following immune system cells, EXCEPT:

      1. B lymphocytes

      2. Natural killer cells

      3. * Fibroblasts

      4. Macrophages

      5. T cells.

    18. Cells affected by HIV are all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. Macrophages

      2. Dendritic cells

      3. Monocytes

      4. * T cells

      5. T cells.

    19. Cells of immune system which have numerous fine dendritic cytoplasmic processus are called:

      1. * Dendritic cells

      2. Fibroblasts

      3. Macrophages

      4. Leucocytes

      5. T cells

    20. Cells which compose the granuloma in type IV hypersensitivity reactions are all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. Lymphocytes

      2. * Erythrocytes

      3. Macrophages

      4. Epithelioid cells

      5. Giant cells.

    21. Cells which play an important role both in the induction and in the effector phase of immune response are which of the following:

      1. B cells

      2. * T cells

      3. B lymphocytes

      4. Macrophages

      5. Natural killer cells.

    22. Classical example of delayed type hypersensitivity is which of the following:

      1. Arthus reaction;

      2. Local anaphylaxis;

      3. Complement-dependent reaction;

      4. * Tuberculin reaction;

      5. Systemic anaphylaxis

    23. Complement activation gives rise for all of the following proinflammatory effects, EXCEPT:

      1. Release of C3b

      2. Production of chemotactic factors

      3. Release of anaphylatoxins

      4. * Formation of antigens

      5. Formation of membrane attack complex.

    24. Conditions leading to endometrial hyperplasia include all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. Polycystic ovarian disease

      2. Functioning granulose cell tumors of the ovary

      3. Prolonged administration of estrogenic substances

      4. Excessive ovarian cortical function

      5. * Prolonged administration of analgesic substances

    25. Disorders of the immune system include all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. * Hyalinosis

      2. Hypersensitivity reactions

      3. Autoimmune diseases

      4. Immunologic deficiency syndromes

      5. Amyloidosis.

    26. Dysplasia is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. Abnormal organization of cells

      2. Loss in the uniformity of individual cells

      3. Loss in cell architectural organization

      4. * Replacement of one adult cell type by another adult cell type

      5. Variation of cells in size and shape

    27. Electron micrograph of a renal glomerular capillary loop from a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus reveals which of the following:

      1. * Dense deposits in subendothelial location

      2. Dense deposits in epithelial cells

      3. Dense deposits in capillary lumen

      4. Laminated deposits in subendothelial location

      5. Laminated deposits in epithelial cells.

    28. Hydronephrosis is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. * Thickening of the renal parenchyma

      2. Thinning of the renal parenchyma

      3. Dilatation of the renal pelvis

      4. Dilatation of the renal calyces

      5. Progressive atrophy of the kidney.

    29. Hyperplasia is characterized by which of the following:

      1. Increase in the size of cells

      2. * Increase in the number of cells

      3. Increase in the number of nuclei in cells

      4. Shrinkage in the size of cells

      5. Atypia of cells.

    30. Hypertrophy as a process is characterized by which of the following:

      1. * Increase in the size of cells and of the organ

      2. Shrinkage in the size of cells and of the organ

      3. Increase in the number of cells

      4. Abnormal organization of cells

      5. Variation of cells in size and shape

    31. Hypertrophy as an adaptive response is charactirized by which of the following:

      1. Pathologic hypertrophy of the breast duringlactation

      2. * Hypertrophy of the skeletal muscle cells in a body-builder

      3. Pathologic hypertrophy of the uterus duringpregnancy

      4. Hypertrophy of the skeletal muscle cells in apatient with immobilized broken limb

      5. Hypertrophy of the endometrium due toovarian tumor.

    32. Hypoplasia is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT

      1. Incomplete development of an organ

      2. Decreased number of cells

      3. * Increased number of cells

      4. Underdevelopment of an organ

      5. Decreased function of an organ.

    33. In urinary tract obstruction all pathologic processes can be found, EXCEPT:

      1. Dilatation of the pelvis and calyces

      2. * Acute tubular necrosis

      3. Interstitial inflammation

      4. Interstitial fibrosis

      5. Glomerular and tubular atrophy.

    34. Local factors that influence wound healing are all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. Wound infection

      2. Mechanical factors

      3. Foreign bodies

      4. * Hormones (glucocorticoids)

      5. Size, location and type of the wound

    35. Macrophage cytokines are characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. Mediate natural immunity

      2. Regulate lymphocytes growth, activation anddifferentiation

      3. Activate inflammatory cells

      4. * Inhibit hematopoesis

      5. Affect leukocyte movements.

    36. Metaplasia is characterized by which of the following:

      1. Reversible increase in the size of cells

      2. Irreversible change in which one adult celltype isreplaced by another adult cell type

      3. * Reversible change in which one adult celltype is replaced by another adult cell type

      4. Reversible abnormal organization of cells

      5. Reversible increase in the number of cells.

    37. Morphologic changes in glomeruli in systemic lupus erythematosus are characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. Swelling and proliferation of the endothelial cells

      2. Swelling and proliferation of mesangial cells

      3. Infiltration of neutrophils

      4. Presence of fibrinoid necrosis and hyalinethrombi

      5. * Infiltration of plasma cells.

    38. Morphologic changes in salivary glands in Sjogren's syndrome include all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. Lymphocytic infiltrate

      2. Atrophy of parenchyma

      3. Fibrosis

      4. * Leukocytic infiltrate

      5. Fatty replacement of parenchyma.

    39. Morphologically, delayed-type hypersensitivity is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. Accumulation of the mononuclear cells around venules

      2. Dermal edema

      3. Deposition of fibrin in the interstitium of derma

      4. Accumulation of the mononuclear cellsaround small vein

      5. *Deposition of hemosiderin in the derma.

    40. Name the macrophage cytokines which are characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. Mediate natural immunity;

      2. Regulate lymphocytes growth, activation anddifferentiation;

      3. Activate inflammatory cells;

      4. *Inhibit hematopoesis;

      5. Affect leukocyte movements.

    41. One of the variants of physiologic atrophy is:

      1. Atrophy of skeletal muscle by the immobi lized broken limb

      2. *Atrophy of uterus after parturition

      3. Kidney atrophy from pressure (hydronephrosis)

      4. Atrophy of the endometrium by ovarian tumor

      5. Atrophy of the brain in atherosclerosis

    42. Organs most commonly and seriously damaged in systemic lupus erythematosus are all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. Skin;

      2. *Eye;

      3. Joints;

      4. Serosal surfaces;

      5. Heart and vessels

    43. Point out the mechanism which is the basis for classification of the hypersensitivity diseases.

      1. *Immunologic

      2. Byochemical

      3. Non-immunologic

      4. Chemical

      5. Physiologic.

    44. Populations at high risk for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection include all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. *Donors of blood and blood components

      2. Homosexual and bisexual men

      3. Intravenous drug users

      4. Hemophiliacs

      5. Infants born to HIV-infected mothers.

    45. Predominant cells aggregating in the form of follicles in the spleen are which of the following:

      1. B cells

      2. T cells

      3. * B lymphocytes

      4. Macrophages

      5. Natural killer cells.

    46. Pressure-overloaded (concentric) cardiac hypertrophy is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. Hypertrophy of left ventricle

      2. Increased wall thickness

      3. Normal left cavity diameter

      4. *Dilated left cavity diameter

      5. Reduced left cavity diameter.

    47. Primary mediators contained within mast cells' granules are all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. Biogenic amines

      2. Enzymes

      3. Chemotactic mediators

      4. Proteoglycans

      5. * Leukotrienes.

    48. Secondary mediators released during Type I hypersensitivity (anaphylactic type) are all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. Leukotriens;

      2. Cytokines;

      3. * Biogenic amines;

      4. Platelet-activating factor;

      5. Prostaglandin D2.

    49. Short-acting soluble mediators which induce and regulate cell interactions during immune response are commonly called:

      1. Glucagon

      2. * Cytokines

      3. Insulin

      4. Estrogen

      5. Progesteron.

    50. Simple endometrial hyperplasia is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. Increase in the number and size of endometrial glands

      2. Atypia of gland cells

      3. Complex endometrial glands

      4. Increase in gland-to-stroma ratio

      5. Dilated endometrial glands.

    51. Systemic factors that influence wound healing are all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. Nutrition

      2. Metabolic status

      3. Blood group

      4. Circulatory status

      5. Hormones (glucocorticoids).

    52. Systemic lupus erythematosus is associated with appearance and persistence of which of the following:

      1. Alloantibody

      2. Alloantigens

      3. * Autoantigens

      4. Heteroantibody

      5. Heteroantigens.

    53. T cells influence the function of all of the following immune system cells, EXCEPT:

      1. B lymphocytes

      2. Natural killer cells

      3. * Fibroblasts

      4. Macrophages

      5. T cells.

    54. The all of the following cells are involved in immune response, EXCEPT:

      1. * Eeosinophils;

      2. Macrophages;

      3. Natural killer cells;

      4. T lymphocytes;

      5. B lymphocytes.

    55. The all of the following diseases result from Type III hypersensithity (immune complex disorders), EXCEPT:

      1. Glomerulonephritis;

      2. Farmer's lung;

      3. Myocardial infarction;

      4. Hemolitic anemia;

      5. Systemic lupus erythematosus

    56. The antinuclear antibodies in systemic lupus erythematosus are directed against all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. DNA;

      2. Histones;

      3. * Nuclear membrane;

      4. Nonhiston proteins bound to RNA;

      5. Nucleolar antigens.

    57. The autoimmune diseases involving a single organ or cell type are all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. Hashimoto thyroiditis;

      2. Goodpasture syndrome;

      3. Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus;

      4. * Myocardial infarction;

      5. Myasthenia gravis.

    58. The causes of hypertrophy are all of the following, EXCEPT.

      1. Mechanical triggers

      2. Trophic triggers

      3. *Nervous triggers

      4. Polypeptide growth factors

      5. Vasoactive agents.

    59. The causes of pathologic atrophy are all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. Aging

      2. * Intracellular fat accumulation

      3. Pressure

      4. Inadequate nutrition

      5. Denervation

    60. The causes of pathologic atrophy are all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. Loss of endocrine stimulation

      2. Loss of innervation

      3. Diminished blood supply

      4. Decreased workload

      5. *Increased workload

    61. The CD4+ T cells influence the function of all of the following immune system cells, EXCEPT:

      1. B lymphocytes;

      2. Natural killer cells;

      3. *Fibroblasts;

      4. Macrophages;

      5. CD8+ T cells.

    62. The cells affected by HIV are all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. Macrophages;

      2. Dendritic cells;

      3. Monocytes;

      4. * CD8+ T cells;

      5. CD4+ T cells.

    63. The cells which play an important role both in the induction and in the effector phase of immune response are which of the following:

      1. CD4+T cells;

      2. CD8+ T cells;

      3. B lymphocytes;

      4. * Macrophages;

      5. Natural killer cells.

    64. The cellular adaptation without cell proliferation includes all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. Apoptosis

      2. Atrophy;

      3. *Hyperplasia;

      4. Hypertrophy;

      5. Metaplasia.

    65. The classical example of delayed type hypersensitivity is which of the following:

      1. Arthus reaction

      2. Local anaphylaxis

      3. Complement-dependent reaction

      4. * Tuberculin reaction

      5. Systemic anaphylaxis

    66. The complement activation gives rise for all of the following proinflammatory effects, EXCEPT:

      1. Release of C3b;

      2. Production of chemotactic factors;

      3. Release of anaphylatoxins;

      4. * Formation of antigens;

      5. Formation of membrane attack complex.

    67. The most common clinical manifestation of endometrial hyperplasia is:

      1. * Abnormal uterine bleeding

      2. Menses stopping

      3. Pains

      4. Purulent discharges

      5. Mucous discharges

    68. The primary mediators contained within mast cells' granules are all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. Biogenic amines;

      2. Enzymes;

      3. Chemotactic mediators;

      4. Proteoglycans;

      5. * Leukotrienes.

    69. The proliferation of the glandular epithelium of a female during pregnancy is an example of:

      1. Compensatory hyperplasia

      2. Pathologic hyperplasia

      3. * Hormonal hyperplasia

      4. Compensatory hypertrophy

      5. Hormonal hypertrophy.

    70. The replacement of the normal secretory columnar epithelium by the nonfunctioning stratified squamous epithelium may occur in all organs of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. Bile ducts of the liver;

      2. Excretory ducts of the salivary glands

      3. Excretory ducts of the pancreas

      4. * Respiratory epithelium of the bronchi

      5. Tubular epithelium of the kidney.

    71. The short-acting soluble mediators which induce and regulate cell interactions during immune response are commonly called:

      1. Glucagon

      2. *Cytokines;

      3. Insulin;

      4. Estrogen;

      5. Progesteron.

    72. The systemic factors that influence wound healing are all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. Nutrition;

      2. Metabolic status;

      3. *Blood group;

      4. Circulatory status;

      5. Hormones (glucocorticoids).

    73. The systemic lupus erythematosus is associated with appearance and persistence of which of the following:

      1. Alloantibody;

      2. Alloantigens;

      3. *Autoantigens;

      4. Heteroantibody;

      5. Heteroantigens.

    74. Type I hypersensitivity (anaphylactk type) is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. Occurs in humans previously sensitized to theantigen

      2. Develops rapidly (within minutes)

      3. Mediates by IgE antibodies in humans

      4. *Develops slowly (within days)

      5. Mast cell or basophil degranulation.

    75. What pigment can be found in the cytoplasm of heart and muscle cells in aging atrophy?

      1. *Lipofuscin

      2. Melanin

      3. Hemosiderin

      4. Bilirubin

      5. Ferritin.

    76. What type of metaplasia may occur in the respiratory tract in habitual cigarette smoker?

      1. Epithelial metaplasia: squamous to columnar

      2. Metaplasia to undifferentiated mesenchymalcells

      3. Connective tissue metaplasia

      4. *Epithelial metaplasia: columnar to squamosus

      5. None of these.

    77. What type of wound healing can be termed as "keloid"?

      1. Atrophic scar

      2. Scar with dysplasia

      3. Hyperplastic scar

      4. Hypotrophic scar

      5. *Hypertrophic scar

    78. Which pathologic process results from dysplasia?

      1. Aplasia

      2. Hypoplasia

      3. Hyperpigmentation

      4. Calcification

      5. * Neoplasia

    79. A malignant tumor is characterized by all of the following, except:

      1. Increased abnormal tissue mass

      2. Uncoordinated invasive growth

      3. Relatively autonomous growth

      4. * Decreased abnormal tissue mass

      5. Metastases

    80. All of the following genes (known as " tumor suppressor genes ") provide the negative control over cell proliferation, except:

      1. The p53gene

      2. The DCC ("Deleted in Colon Cancer") gene

      3. The Rb gene

      4. The WT-1 gene

      5. * The bcl-2 gene

    81. All of the following neoplasms are malignant, except:

      1. Adenocarcinoma

      2. Melanoma

      3. Seminoma

      4. Chorionepithelioma

      5. * Papillary cystadenoma

    82. All of the following statements correctly describe cell oncogenes, except:

      1. * Oncogenes are derived from viral DNA that has been incorporated into the genome

      2. Oncogenes encode proteins that resemble the products of normal genes

      3. Some oncogene products are the analogues of growth factors

      4. Some oncogene products are the analogues of growth factor receptors

      5. Some oncogene products activate nuclear transcription

    83. Among neuroectodermal tumours most frequently occur:

      1. * Astrocytes

      2. Monocytic

      3. Ectodermal

      4. Pericytes

      5. Melanin-producing

    84. Anaplasia is characterized by all of the following, except:

      1. Cellular and nuclear pleomorphism

      2. Formation of tumor giant cells

      3. Formation of atypical mitotic figures

      4. * Formation of Langhans giant cells

      5. Hyperchromatic nuclei

    85. Astroblastoma metastasing by:

      1. * Cerebrospinal fluid

      2. Blood

      3. Lymph

      4. Contact|

      5. Implantation

    86. Benign tumor arising from cartilaginous tissue is called:

      1. * Chondroma

      2. Adenoma

      3. Osteoma

      4. Fibroma

      5. Papilloma

    87. Benign tumor arising from fibroblastic cells is called:

      1. Chondroma

      2. Adenoma

      3. Osteoma

      4. * Fibroma;

      5. Papilloma

    88. Benign tumor arising from osteoblasts is called:

      1. Chondroma

      2. Adenoma

      3. * Osteoma

      4. Fibroma

      5. Papilloma

    89. Benign tumor arising from smooth muscle cells is called:

      1. * Leiomyoma

      2. Myoma

      3. Chondroma

      4. Rhabdomyoma

      5. Fibroma

    90. Benign tumors composed of either cavernous spaces or serpentine capillary-like channels containing blood or lymph are all the following, except:

      1. Capillary lymphangiomas

      2. Cavernous hemangiomas

      3. * Capillary telangiectases

      4. Cavernous lymphangiomas

      5. Capillary hemangiomas

    91. Capillary Hemangioma more frequently occur in:

      1. Mans

      2. Young women

      3. * Children

      4. Old age people

      5. Women in menopause

    92. Cells that are believed to participate in the destruction of tumor cells include all of the following, except.

      1. Activated macrophages

      2. * Stem cells

      3. CD4 + T cells

      4. T killer cells

      5. CD4 -, CD8 - cells

    93. Character of growth of high differentiated tumors in relation to surrounding tissues:

      1. Exophytic

      2. * Expansive

      3. Endophytic

      4. Infiltrating

      5. Invasive

    94. Character of growth of malignant tumors in relation to surrounding tissues.

      1. Exophytic

      2. Expansive

      3. Endophytic

      4. Apposition

      5. * Invasive

    95. Cytokines secreted by tumors that induce angiogenesis and assist the tumor in establishing its blood supply include all of the following, except:

      1. * Tumor necrosis factor

      2. Fibroblast growth factor

      3. Transforming growth factor - a

      4. Transforming growth factor - b

      5. Platelet-derived growth factor

    96. Desmoid is located more often in:

      1. * Anterior abdominal wall

      2. Legs

      3. Hands

      4. Skin of back

      5. Langs

    97. Differentiated synoviom arises from:

      1. * Synovial elements of tendons

      2. Capillries

      3. Venous capillary

      4. Arteriolas

      5. Bone tissues

    98. Dysplasia is characterized by all of the following, except:

      1. Loss of cell uniformity

      2. Hyperchromatic enlarged nuclei

      3. Appearance of mitotic figures

      4. Loss of cell architectural orientation

      5. * Formation of tumor giant cells

    99. Ependymoma is glioma connected with:

      1. * Ventricular ependyma

      2. Mesencephalon

      3. Cerebelli

      4. Spinal cord

      5. Medulla oblongate

    100. First hematogenous metastases of the femur soft tissue fibrosarcoma can be found in which of the following organs:

      1. Liver

      2. Brain

      3. Bones

      4. * Lungs

      5. Regional lymph node

    101. Glomus angioma more often develops in:

      1. * Fingers and toes

      2. Liver

      3. Lungs

      4. Spleen

      5. Brain

    102. Lack of cell differentiation (anaplasia) in malignant tumor is characterized by all of the following, except:

      1. Cellular and nuclear pleomorphism

      2. Hyperchromatic nuclei

      3. Increased nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio

      4. Coarsely clumped chromatin

      5. * Metastases

    103. Leiomyoma is formed from:

      1. Collagen fibers

      2. * Smooth muscles

      3. Histiocytes

      4. Myoblast

      5. Fibroblasts

    104. Leiomyomas of the uterine are characterized by all of the following, except.

      1. Arise from uterine muscle

      2. May undergo degenerative changes

      3. Are hormone-dependent tumors

      4. Usually are multiple tumors

      5. * Always undergo malignization

    105. ?Lesion representing benign neoplasia is which of the following:

      1. Chondroblastic osteosarcoma of the bone

      2. Granuloma of the soft tissue

      3. Tuberculoma

      4. * Papillary serous cystadenoma of the ovary

      5. Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid

    106. Localization first metastases of bowel fibrosarcoma.

      1. * Liver

      2. Kidneys

      3. Lungs

      4. Spleen

      5. Groin glands

    107. Localization first metastases of leg’s soft tissues fibrosarcoma.

      1. Liver

      2. Kidneys

      3. * Lungs

      4. Spleen

      5. Groin glands

    108. Malignant tumors arising from mesenchymal tissue are referred to as:

      1. * Sarcomas

      2. Adenocarcinomas

      3. Papillomas

      4. Cystadenomas

      5. Polyps

    109. Morphologic atypia is characterized by all of the following, except:

      1. Cell pleomorphism

      2. * Metaplasia

      3. Alteration of parenchyma/ stroma ratio

      4. Atypical mitoses

      5. Enlarged hyperchromatic nuclei

    110. Name differentiated tumor from fatty tissue:

      1. * Lipoma

      2. Fibroma

      3. Desmoid

      4. Histiocytoma

      5. Myxoma

    111. Name lymphangioma which develops in a tongue:

      1. Macrocheilia

      2. * Мacroglossia

      3. Lymphoma

      4. Macrosoma

      5. Glossitis

    112. Name of high differentiated tumor of the peripheral nervous system:

      1. Hybernoma

      2. * Schwannoma

      3. Leiomyoma

      4. Fibroma

      5. Glioma

    113. Negative effects resulting from neoplasia are of the following, except:

      1. Compression of adjacent tissues

      2. Cachexia

      3. Destruction of adjacent tissues

      4. Paraneoplastic syndrome

      5. * Cancer obesity

    114. Osteosarcoma is a malignant tumour which arising from:

      1. * Atypical cells of osteoblastic type with a lot of mitosises

      2. Chondrocytes

      3. Lypoblasts

      4. Histiocytes

      5. Chondroblasts

    115. Rhabdomyoma is formed from:

      1. Collagen fibers

      2. Smooth muscles

      3. Histiocytes

      4. * Striated muscles

      5. Fibroblasts

    116. Schwannoma is formed:

      1. Mallory’s bodies

      2. * Spinder-like cells

      3. Giant cells

      4. Paccionian bodies

      5. Melanin-producing cells

    117. Secondary changes in tumors are all of the following, except:

      1. Necrosis

      2. Inflammation

      3. Calcification

      4. Hemorrhages

      5. * Metastases

    118. The criteria by which benign tumors can be differentiated from the malignant ones are all of the following, except:

      1. Maturity

      2. Rate and character of growth

      3. * Localisation

      4. Anaplasia

      5. Metastases.

    119. The etiology of tumors is all of the following theories, except:

      1. Virogenetic

      2. Physicochemical

      3. * Radioactive

      4. Dysontogenetic

      5. Polyetiological

    120. The exstracellular matrix components that contribute to the tumor cell invasion into the basement membranes are all of the following, except:

      1. E - cadherin

      2. Laminin

      3. * CD8

      4. Fibronectin

      5. Type IV - collagen

    121. The factor assessed in the histological grading of a malignant tumor is which of the following:

      1. The number of lymph node metastases

      2. The size (diameter) of the primary tumor

      3. The extent of invasion of the primary tumor into surrounding structures

      4. * The degree of cytological differentiation of the primary tumor

      5. The presence or absence of liver metastases

    122. The glioblastoma multiforme metastasizes to which of the following organs:

      1. Peripheral nervous system

      2. Liver

      3. * Central nervous system

      4. Kidneys

      5. Lungs

    123. The growth of neoplasms is critically dependent on which of the following:

      1. Localization

      2. * Tumor stroma

      3. Neutrophil immigration

      4. Lymphatic rainage

      5. Inflammatory reaction

    124. The important factors associated with the increasing incidence of tumors are au of the following, except:

      1. Age

      2. Diet

      3. Environment

      4. * Acute inflammation;

      5. Genetic makeup

    125. The macroscopical features of glioblastoma multiforme are all of the following, except:

      1. Cystic degeneration and hemorrhage

      2. Gelatinous cut surface

      3. * Soft and red or firm and brown areas

      4. Irregular demarcation zone

      5. Firm and white or soft and yellow areas

    126. The macroscopical features of secondary liver involvement in melanoma are all of the following, except:

      1. Enlarged liver

      2. * Yellow-green color of implants

      3. Multiple nodular implants

      4. Black-brown color of implants;

      5. Tuberous surface

    127. The major classes of brain tumors are all of the following, except:

      1. Gliomas

      2. * Chondromas

      3. Neuronal tumors

      4. Poorly differentiated neoplasms

      5. Meningiomas

    128. The microscopical features of glioblastoma multiforme are all of the following, except:

      1. Secondary necroses

      2. Vascular and endothelial cell proliferation

      3. * Amyloid masses in tumor stroma

      4. Cellular and nuclear pleomorphism

      5. Absence of tumor borderline

    129. The microscopical features of malignant skin melanoma are all of the following, except:

      1. Brown-black cytoplasmic granules

      2. Large nuclei with irregular contours

      3. Clumped chromatin under nucleolar membrane

      4. * Glandular formation

      5. Formation of the tumor nests

    130. The microscopical features of the cavernous hemangioma are all of the following, except:

      1. Sharply defined

      2. Partly or completely filled with blood

      3. Cavernous vascular spaces, sometimes with thrombosis

      4. * Micrometastases

      5. Separated by a scant connective tissue stroma

    131. The most characteristic feature of a malignant neoplasm in contrast to a reactive or inflammatory overgrowth is which of the following:

      1. Growth factor production

      2. Necrosis

      3. Localization

      4. * Autonomous growth following the removal of all provoking factors

      5. Adjacent tissue compression

    132. The most characteristic manifestation of malignant tumor is which of the following:

      1. Cellular atypia and pleomorphism

      2. Compression of surrounding tissue

      3. Large size

      4. Necrosis

      5. * Metastases

    133. The most important feature to distinguish the malignant tumor from a benign one is which of the following:

      1. .Lack of encapsulation

      2. High mitotic rate

      3. Necrosis

      4. * Metastases

      5. Nuclear pleomorphism

    134. The nomenclature of tumors is based on which of the following:

      1. Stromal component

      2. Localization

      3. Inflammatory changes

      4. Vascular component

      5. * Parenchymal component histogenesis

    135. The sequence of events in the tumor cell invasion into the basement membranes includes all of the following, except:

      1. Loosening of intercellular junctions

      2. Attachment to the basement membrane

      3. * Accumulation of the neutrophils

      4. Degradation of the basement membrane

      5. Tumor cell migration

    136. The term of a benign mesenchvmal tumor is constructed by combining the word designating the tumor cell origin plus which of the following endings or words:

      1. -sarcoma

      2. -carcinoma

      3. * -oma

      4. -itis

      5. osis (-asis)

    137. Tumor cell invasion into the extracellular matrix can be characterized by all of the following, except:

      1. Detachment of the tumor cells from each other

      2. * Intravasation

      3. Attachment to matrix components

      4. Degradation of extracellular matrix

      5. Migration of tumor cells

    138. Type of Hemangioma:

      1. * Venous

      2. Microcirculatory

      3. Fibrous

      4. Arterial

      5. Granular-cell

    139. A histological examination of a biopsy from a uterine cervix revealed that its tissue was covered with a wide layer of the stratified squamous epithelium having proliferation of atypical cells with pathological mitoses, but the basal membrane of the epithelium was not affected. What is your diagnosis?

      1. Nonkeratinizing squamous cell carcinoma

      2. Keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma

      3. *Carcinoma in situ

      4. Leukoplakia

      5. Epithelial dysplasia

    140. A histological examination of a thyroid gland revealed small cysts, which were lined with atypical epithelium and filled with papillae, the latter originating from the walls of the cysts and growing into their capsules. Name the tumour.

      1. Papillary adenoma

      2. Follicular carcinoma

      3. * Papillary carcinoma

      4. Solid carcinoma

      5. Carcinoma simplex

    141. A histological examination of some spherical neoplasm located under the surface of the skin, revealed papilliform vegetations of the epithelium with phenomena of acanthosis and hyperkeratinization. The tumour stroma consisted of a large amount of the connective tissue and vessels. What tumour took place?

      1. Keratoacanthoma

      2. * Papilloma

      3. Carcinoma in situ

      4. Keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma

      5. Nonkeratinizing squamous cell carcinoma

    142. A histological examination of the eyeball was made; some black tumour, 1 x 0.4 cm in size, was revealed in its vascular membrane. Microscopically, the tumour consists of large polymorphous cells grouped in alveolar structures. The cytoplasm of the cells contains some brown pigment. What is your diagnosis?

      1. * Melanoma

      2. Neurilemmoma

      3. Angiosarcoma

      4. Neuroblastoma

      5. Ganglioneuroblastoma

    143. A man underwent surgical removal of a black tumour, 2 cm in diamete, from the skin of his thigh. Microscopically, the tumour consisted of polymorphous cells, the cytoplasm of most of them includs some brown pigment (with a positive reaction to DOPA). A large number of pathological mitoses was registered. Which of the tumours listed below was the most probable?

      1. Carcinoma

      2. Sarcoma

      3. Carcinosarcoma

      4. * Melanoma

      5. Nevus

    144. A microscopic examination of a biopsy from a deformed mucous membrane of a lobar bronchus of a 45-year-old man, who smoked for many years, revealed a carcinoma consisting of atypical epithelial cells with hyperchromatic nuclei and numerous pathological mitoses. The growth of the tumour did not spread to the basal membrane of the epithelium. Name the histological form of carcinoma.

      1. Squamous cell carcinoma

      2. Adenocarcinoma

      3. * Carcinoma in situ

      4. Solid carcinoma

      5. Small-cell carcinoma

    145. A microscopic examination of a biopsy from a uterine cervix: it consists of the stratified squamous epithelium, characterized by cellular and nuclear atypism, pathological mitoses, there exist keratin pearls in the depth of the epithelial layers. What is your diagnosis?

      1. Transitional cell carcinoma

      2. Nonkeratinizing squamous cell carcinoma

      3. * Keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma

      4. Adenocarcinoma

      5. Solid carcinoma

    146. A sequence of metaplasia-dysplasia-neoplasia typically is known to occur in the oncogenesis of all of the following cancers, EXCEPT:

      1. Squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder

      2. * Carcinoid tumor of the small bowel

      3. Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung

      4. Adenocarcinoma of the esophagus

      5. Squamous cell carcinoma of the endocervix

    147. A tumor that tends to spread over the surfaces of organs or body cavities rather than metastastring via blood vessels or lymphatics is which of the following:

      1. Colon carcinoma

      2. Thyroid carcinoma

      3. * Mesothelioma

      4. Renal cell carcinoma

      5. Hepatocellular carcinoma

    148. Adenoma is the quiet formed tumor with:

      1. Transitional epithelium

      2. * Glandular epithelium

      3. Squamous epithelium

      4. Epymisium

      5. Perimisium

    149. All of the following genes ( known as " tumor suppressor genes ") provide the negative control over cell proliferation, EXCEPT:

      1. The p53gene

      2. The DCC ("Deleted in Colon Cancer") gene

      3. The Rb gene

      4. The WT-1 gene

      5. * The bcl-2 gene

    150. All of the following neoplasms are malignant, EXCEPT:

      1. Adenocarcinoma

      2. Melanoma

      3. Seminoma

      4. Chorionepithelioma

      5. * Papillary cystadenoma

    151. All of the following neoplasms are malignant, EXCEPT:

      1. Adenocarcinoma

      2. Melanoma

      3. Seminoma

      4. Chorionepithelioma

      5. * Adenoma

    152. All of the following neoplasms are malignant, EXCEPT:

      1. Adenocarcinoma

      2. Melanoma

      3. Seminoma

      4. Chorionepithelioma

      5. * Papilloma

    153. All of the following neoplasms are malignant, EXCEPT:

      1. Adenocarcinoma

      2. Sarcoma

      3. Seminoma

      4. Chorionepithelioma

      5. * Mioma

    154. All of the following neoplasms are malignant, EXCEPT:

      1. Adenocarcinoma

      2. Sarcoma

      3. Seminoma

      4. Chorionepithelioma

      5. * Fybroma

    155. All of the following types of molecule can directly control the cell growth, EXCEPT:

      1. Cyclins

      2. Ras proteins

      3. G proteins

      4. Mitogen-activated protein kinases

      5. * Selectins

    156. All of the following viruses proved to be capable of producing malignancies in human beings, EXCEPT:

      1. Human papillomavirus

      2. * Cytomegalovirus

      3. Epstein - Barr virus

      4. Hepatitis B virus

      5. Hepatitis C virus

    157. An autopsy of a woman who died from cachexia, revealed some massive exophytic carcinoma on the lesser curvature of the stomach with metastases to the ovaries. What kind of metastatic spreading took place?

      1. Haematogenous

      2. Lymphogenous orthograde

      3. * Lymphogenous retrograde

      4. Implantation

      5. Perineural

    158. An autopsy of a woman, who died from renal insufficiency, revealed in her spinal column, cranial bones and ribs some defects of the osseous tissue with tumour nodes on their margins. The kidneys were enlarged, dense and "greasy" on section. Microscopically, the tumour nodes and bone marrow were characterized by a proliferation of tumour cells of the plasmacytic line. Which of the diseases listed below corresponds to the description?

      1. Metastasis of pulmonary carcinoma into bones

      2. Osteosarcoma

      3. * Multiple myeloma

      4. Osteoporosis

      5. Osteomyelitis

    159. Benign epithelial neoplasm producing finger-like projection from epithelial surfaces is referred to as:

      1. * Papilloma

      2. Adenoma

      3. Fibroma

      4. Sarcoma

      5. Teratoma

    160. Carcinoid syndrome development results from producing of which the following substances:

      1. Melanin

      2. * Serotonin

      3. Bilirubin

      4. Ferritin

      5. Hemosiderin

    161. Carcinomas forming glandular structures are called:

      1. Sarcomas

      2. Papillomas

      3. * Adenocarcinomas

      4. Cystadenomas

      5. Polyps

    162. Carcinomas with epidermoid cell differentiation are called:

      1. Sarcomas

      2. Adenocarcinomas

      3. * Squamous cell carcinomas

      4. Рapillomas

      5. Cystadenomas

    163. Cellular proteins that are responsible for the carcinoma's ability to invade the surrounding extracellular matrix include all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. * CD4+ adhesion molecule

      2. Laminin receptor

      3. Fibronectin receptor

      4. Type IV collagenase

      5. Cathepsin D

    164. Cellular proteins that are responsible for the carcinoma's ability to invade the surrounding extracellular matrix include all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. * CD4+ adhesion molecule

      2. Laminin receptor

      3. Fibronectin receptor

      4. Type lYcollagenase

      5. Cathepsin D

    165. Criteria, by which benign tumors can be differentiated from malignant ones are all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. Maturity

      2. Rate and character of growth

      3. Local invasion

      4. * Edema

      5. Metastases

    166. Cytokines secreted by tumors that induce angiogenesis and assist the tumor in establishing its blood supply include all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. * “Tumor necrosis factor”

      2. Fibroblast growth factor

      3. Transforming growth factor - a

      4. Transforming growth factor - b

      5. Platelet-derived growth factor

    167. Endometrial carcinoma is commonly associated with all of the following:

      1. Diabetes mellitus

      2. Infertility

      3. * Oral contraceptive steroid use

      4. Hypertension

      5. Obesity

    168. First hematogenous metastases of the endometrium carcinoma can be found in which of the following organs:

      1. * Lungs

      2. Liver

      3. Heart

      4. Regional lymph nodes

      5. Central nervous system

    169. Histological changes occuring in breast fibroadenoma include all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. Stromal proliferation

      2. Proliferation of small ductule epithelial cells

      3. * Acute inflammation

      4. Ductal compression

      5. Ductal dilation

    170. Invasive breast adenocarcinomas of the female breast include all subtypes, EXCEPT:

      1. Scirrhous adenocarcinoma

      2. * Carcinoma in situ

      3. Adenocarcinoma

      4. Medullary carcinoma

      5. Tubular carcinoma

    171. Lack of differentiation is characteristic of which of the following:

      1. Hyperplasia

      2. Hypoplasia

      3. * Anaplasia

      4. Hypertrophy

      5. Hypotrophy

    172. Lesion of the female genital tract considered precancerous is which of the following:

      1. Cystic atrophy of the endometrium

      2. Endocervical polyps

      3. Condyloma acuminatum of the vulva

      4. Endometrial polyps

      5. * Atypical hyperplasia of the endometrium

    173. Lesion representing benign neoplasia is which of the following:

      1. Chondroblastic osteosarcoma of the bone

      2. Granuloma of the soft tissue

      3. Tuberculoma

      4. * Papillary serous cystadenoma of the ovary

      5. Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid

    174. Lung adenocarcinoma is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. Bronchial, bronchiolar or alveolar cell derived

      2. * Mesenchymal origin

      3. Acinar structure

      4. Papillary growth

      5. Solid growth

    175. Not formed malignant tumors are named:

      1. * Carcinoma

      2. Fibroma

      3. Adenoma

      4. Mioma

      5. Papilloma

    176. On bronchoscopy in the initial part of the upper lobe bronchus of the right lung some polyp-like formation, 1.0 cm in diameter, with a superficial ulcer was found. A histological examination revealed a tumour consisting of lymphocyte-like cells with hyperchromatic nuclei; the cells grew in layers and bands. Indicate the most probable tumour.

      1. * Undifferentiated small-cell carcinoma

      2. Undifferentiated large-cell carcinoma

      3. Squamous cell carcinoma

      4. Adenocarcinoma

      5. Glandular squamous cell carcinoma

    177. On bronchoscopy, an exophytic tumour was found, it was localized in the bronchus and significantly narrowed its lumen. Histologically, the tumour consisted of complexes of polymorphous epithelial cells with hyperchromatic nuclei and pathological mitoses. Among the tumour cells there were eosinophilic concentric structures. Make a diagnosis of the tumour.

      1. Nonkeratinizing squamous cell carcinoma

      2. * Keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma

      3. Large-cell carcinoma

      4. Small-cell carcinoma

      5. Adenoacanthoma

    178. Poor prognosis in breast cancer is associated with all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. Overexpression of the erbB2/neu oncogene

      2. Absence of estrogen receptors

      3. Presence of aneuploidy

      4. Extensive angiogenesis

      5. * Overexpression of the N-myc oncogene

    179. The epithelial tumors without specific localization develop from:

      1. Mesotheliocytes

      2. Fibroblastes

      3. * Squamous epithelium

      4. Epithelioidcells

      5. Epitheliocytes

    180. The epithelial tumors without specific localization don’t develop in:

      1. Endometria

      2. Epiderm

      3. * Heart

      4. Esophagus

      5. Epithelium of the oral cavity

    181. The factor assessed in the histologicai grading of a malignant tumor is which of the following:

      1. The number of lymph node metastases

      2. The size (diameter) of the primary tumor

      3. The extent of invasion of the primary tumor into surrounding structures

      4. * The degree of cytological differentiation of the primary tumor

      5. The presence or absence of liver metastases

    182. The first site of metastasis for adenocarcinoma of the colon would most likely be to which of the following:

      1. Brain

      2. Liver

      3. Lung

      4. * Lymph nodes

      5. Spleen

    183. The important prognostic features in invasive breast cancer are all of the following, EXCEPT.

      1. Histologic type of the tumor

      2. Grade of the tumor

      3. Size of the tumor

      4. * Secondary necrosis

      5. Presence or absence of estrogen receptors on tumor cells

    184. The lung carcinoma growth is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. Invasion into the bronchial lumen

      2. Penetration into the bronchial wall

      3. Tumor cavitation

      4. Peribronchial infiltration

      5. * Tuberculoma formation

    185. The macroscopical features of secondary liver involvement in melanoma are all of the following, EXCEPT:

      1. Enlarged liver

      2. * Yellow-green color of implants

      3. Multiple nodular implants

      4. Black-brown color of implants

      5. Tuberous surface

    186. The most characteristic feature of a malignant neoplasm in contrast to a reactive or inflammatory overgrowth is which of the following:

      1. Growth factor production

      2. Necrosis

      3. Localization

      4. * Autonomous growth following the removal of all provoking factors

      5. Adjacent tissue compression

    187. The most characteristic manifestation of malignant tumor is which of the following:

      1. * Cellular atypia and pleomorphism

      2. Compression of surrounding tissue

      3. Large size

      4. Necrosis

      5. Large size and necrosis

    188. The most common benign tumor of the female breast is which of the following:

      1. Cystadenoma

      2. * Fibroadenoma

      3. Sarcoma

      4. Fibroma

      5. Adenocarcinoma

    189. The most common benign tumor of the ovary is which of the following:

      1. Papilloma

      2. Fibroma

      3. * Cystadenoma

      4. Adenocarcinoma

      5. Melanoma

    190. The most common malignant epithelial tumor of the stomach is which of the following:

      1. Gastric lymphoma

      2. Gastric leiomyosarcoma

      3. * Gastric carcinoma

      4. Gastric leiomyoma

      5. Adenomatous polyp

    191. The most important feature to distinguish the malignant tumor from a benign one is which of the following:

      1. Lack of encapsulation

      2. High mitotic rate

      3. Necrosis

      4. * Metastases

      5. itotic rate

    192. The most significant histogenetic sign of well-differentiated squamosus carcinoma is which of the following:

      1. * Keratinization

      2. Necrotic foci

      3. Areas of inflammation

      4. Hemorrhages

      5. Abscesses

    193. The papilloma looks like:

      1. A noddle with narrow flat

      2. * A noddle with papilly flat

      3. Cyst

      4. Stria

      5. Scar

    194. The quiet formed benign tumor with glandular cells is known as:

      1. * Adenoma

      2. Fibroma

      3. Sarcoma

      4. Mioma

      5. Papilloma

    195. The quiet formed benign tumor with squamous epithelium is known as:

      1. Sarcoma

      2. Fibroma

      3. Lipoma

      4. Mioma

      5. * Papilloma

    196. The term of a benign epithelial tumor is constructed by combining the word designating the tumor cell origin plus endings or words:

      1. -sarcoma

      2. -carcinoma

      3. -itis

      4. * - oma

      5. - osis (- asis )

    197. What type of metaplasia may occur in the respiratory tract in habitual cigarette smoker?

      1. Epithelial metaplasia: squamous to columnar

      2. * Epithelial metaplasia columnar to squamous

      3. Metaplasia to undifferentiated mesenchymal cells

      4. Connective tissue metaplasia

      5. Compensatory metaplasia

    198. Аll of the following morphologic features characterize the adenocarcinoma cells, EXCEPT:

      1. Variation in size and shape

      2. Hyperchromatic nuclei

      3. Enlarged nucleoli

      4. * Hypochromatic nuclei

      5. Atypical mitoses

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