In which of the following locations (spaces), there is collection of pus in quinsy? Peritonsillar space

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  1. In which of the following locations (spaces), there is collection of pus in quinsy?

  1. Peritonsillar space

  2. Parapharyngeal space

  3. Retropharyngeal space

  4. Within tonsil

  1. Type of voice in nasopharyngeal fibroma is:

  1. Rhinolalia aperta

  2. Rhinolalia clausa

  3. Hot-potato voice

  4. Staccato voice

  1. Most common benign tumour of oesophagus is:

  1. Leiomyoma

  2. Lipoma

  3. Fibroma

  4. Papilloma

  1. Amount of saliva secreted in 24 hours is:

  1. 50—100 ml

  2. 200—300ml

  3. 600—800 ml

  4. 1000—1500m1

  1. Xerostomias can be caused by all of the following except:

  1. Antihistamines

  2. Uraemia

  3. Sjögren’s syndrome

  4. Mouth breathing

  5. Cerebral palsy

  1. Non-neoplastic, non-inflammatory enlargement of parotid glands is seen in:

  1. Obesity

  2. Hypothyroidism

  3. Diabetes mellitus

  4. Malnutrition

  5. All of the above

  1. Most common site of origin of pleomorphic adenoma is:

  1. Parotid gland

  2. Submandibular salivary gland

  3. Minor salivary glands of soft and hard palate

  4. Minor salivary glands of lip

  1. Sensory nerve supply above the level of vocal cords is:

  1. Glossopharyngeal

  2. Superior laryngeal

  3. Recurrent laryngeal

  4. Pharyngeal branch of vagus

  1. All of the following laryngeal cartilages undergo calcification except:

  1. Thyroid

  2. Cricoid

  3. Epiglottis

  4. Arytenoid

  1. Type of epithelium lining the vocal cords is:

  1. Keratinising stratified squamous

  2. Non-keratinising stratified squamous

  3. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar

  4. Cuboidal

  1. Reinke’s oedema is responsible for:

  1. Vocal nodule

  2. Vocal polyp

  3. Diffuse polypoid degeneration of vocal cords

  4. Laryngeal cyst

  1. Laryngeal web most commonly involves region of:

  1. Supraglottitis

  2. Glottis

  3. Subglottis

  4. Both (a) and (b)

  1. Acute epiglottitis in children is mostly caused by:

  1. Para-inf)uenzae type 1 and 2

  2. Respiratory syncytial virus

  3. Streptococcus pneumoniae

  4. Haemophilus influenzae type B

  1. Regarding multiple laryngeal papillomas of larynx, all are true except:

  1. Caused by a virus

  2. Recurrent in nature

  3. Premalignant

  4. Laser excision is the best treatment

  1. The highest incidence of distant metastases in laryngeal cancer is seen in:

  1. Lung

  2. Bone

  3. Liver

  4. Brain

  1. Most common malignancy seen in AIDS patients is:

  1. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

  2. Kaposi’s sarcoma

  3. Cancer nasopharynx

  4. Hairy Leukoplia

  1. Chemotherapy used after surgery or radiotherapy for cancer is termed as:

  1. Combination chemotherapy

  2. Adjuvant chemotherapy

  3. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy

  4. Concomitant chemotherapy

  1. Typical clinical features of Horner’s syndrome include all except:

  1. Dilated pupil

  2. Ptosis

  3. Enophthalmos

  4. Nasal Stuffiness

  1. Aim of mastoid surgery in CSOM which should receive first priority is:

  1. Making the ear dry

  2. Improvement in hearing

  3. Preservation of hearing

  4. Rendering the ear safe

  1. Which of the following muscles is most important in opening of the eustach Ian tube?

  1. Levator veil palatini

  2. Tensor veil palatini

  3. Salpingopharyngeus

  4. Buccinator

  5. Lateral pterygoid

  1. Which of the following statements BEST describes the development of the ear in an otherwise healthy child?

  1. At birth the ossicles are approximately half their eventual adult size.

  2. The auricle develops from the ectoderm of the first three branchial arches.

  3. At birth the auricle is adult shape and size.

  4. The first otologic structure to develop is the inner ear.

  5. The bony labyrinth develops from six separate centres of ossification.

  1. What is the MOST common soft tissue malignancy in childhood?

  1. Osteosarcoma

  2. Rhabdomyosarcoma

  3. Fibro-ossifying sarcoma -

  4. Hemangiopericytoma

  5. Neurofibiosarcoma

  1. Which of the following statements concerning cutaneous hamangiomas is true?

  1. Haemangiomas are considered vascular malformations.

  2. Haemangiomas are always present at birth.

  3. Surgical removal of a haemangiomas is the primary treatment

  4. A port wine stain is a cutaneous haemangioma involving the face.

  5. Subglottic haemangiomas are frequently associated with cutaneous lesions.

  1. Which of the following is LEAST associated with Down’s syndrome?

  1. Low-set ears

  2. Subglottic stenosis

  3. Subglottic haemangioma

  4. Otitis media with effusion

  5. Relative gA deficiency

  1. You are asked to see a 2-year-old child with suspected sinusitis.

Which of the following sinuses is UNLIKELY to be involved?

  1. Sphenoid

  2. Ethmoid

  3. Maxillary

  4. All of the above: a child of this age would not develop sinusitis

  5. They all have an equal chance of being involved

  1. Concerning nasal ciliary physiology and anatomy, which of the following statements is LEAST accurate?

  1. The nose is lined by ciliated pseudostratified glandular columnar epithelium.

  2. The nasal cilia are arranged as 9 microtubule doublets formed in an outer circle around a central pair.

  3. The outer microtubular doublets are linked by the protein nexin.

  4. Ciliary movement is described as having 2 phases.

  5. Normal ciliary beat frequency is approximately 10—25 beats per minute.

  1. Which of the following bones do not form part of the osteology of the lateral nasal wall?

  1. Maxilla

  2. Palatine l

  3. Ethmoid

  4. Perpendicular plate of the sphenoid

  5. Inferior turbinate

  1. A 44 year male with a 4-month history of anosmia reports that he can still smell ammc’nia. Which cranial nerve is likely to be responsible for this?

  1. One — olfactory

  2. Five — trigeminal

  3. Seven — facial

  4. Nine — glossopharyngeal

  5. Ten — vagus

  1. A 79-year-old man presents to the clinic with left-sided nasal discharge and obstruction. A mass is found arising from the ethmoid sinuses and histology shows an adenocarcinoma.

Which of the following is the most significant risk factor for developing this disease?

  1. Smoking

  2. Alcohol

  3. A and B

  4. Wood dust

  5. Asbestos

  1. A 14-year-old boy presents to the hospital accompanied by his father with hypovolaemic shock and active bleeding following a secondary tonsillar haemorrhage. He has a haemoglobin of 5.5 g!dl on a blood gas. You advise that the boy requires resuscitation including blood transfusion and return to theatre to arrest the haemorrhage. The boy informs you that he is a Jehovah’s Witness and he forbids you to perform a blood transfusion. What is the next MOST appropriate action?

  1. Call a senior colleague and ask him to come in to give a second opinion.

  2. Call the blood bank to find a cell saver device.

  3. Perform the blood transfusion as clinically indicated.

  4. Contact the hospital lawyer for advice.

  5. Perform all measures necessary except the transfusion

  1. Tumours of the lower tip are typically:

  1. Basal cell carcinomas

  2. Associated with poor oral hygiene

  3. Associated with neck metastases in 45% of patients at presentation

  4. Almost universally in males

  5. Associated with tate metastasis in 50%

  1. What is the single most common cause of an incorrect blood transfusion being administered?

  1. Laboratory error

  2. Error in blood donor centre

  3. Minor antigen reaction

  4. Clerical error by doctor

  5. Failure in pre-transfusion bedside checking

  1. Which of the following is LEAST Likely to improve the symptoms from an anterior nasal septal perforation?

  1. Nasal hygiene

  2. Free tissue transfer cartilage graft repair (cartilage, perichondrium only)

  3. Silastic button placement

  4. Local flap repair

  5. Free tissue transfer composite graft repair (epithelium, cartilage, epithetium)

  1. A 42-year-old male presents with nasaL obstruction. A CT of the paranasal sinuses is reported as showing opacification of the right maxillary sinus with ‘doubLe density’ signals throughout the sinus. Which of the followir.g is the LEAST likely pathology?

  1. Allergic fungat sinusitis

  2. Chondrosarcoma

  3. Inverted papilloma

  4. Antrochoanal polyp

  5. Ossifying fibroma

  1. Endotracheal intubation of patients with laryngeal injuries is

  1. Problematic and should be avoided

  2. Beneficial in all patients and avoids the need for tracheotomy

  3. Permissible and frequently safely performed in the emergency room setting

  4. Permissible when the airway appears intact and skilled personnel are available.

  5. Cricothyrotomy or tracheotomy are the only options

  1. Which of the following statements best describes the role of computed tomography of the larynx after blunt trauma?

  1. All patients with suspected laryngeal injuries should undergo computed tomography to document the extent of their injury.

  2. Computed tomography should be used only when the results of the study will influence the course of treatment.

  3. Suspected fractures of the laryngeal ‘skeleton that are difficult to document by physical examination should be viewed by computed tomography.

  4. b and c

  5. All of the above

  1. Which of the following is true regarding vocal fold nodules?

    1. They are often seen in men.

    2. They are rarely unilateral.

    3. They result from trauma to capillaries.

    4. They are most often treated surgically.

    5. They are rarely associated with vocal abuse.

  1. Which of the following risk factors are associated with laryngeal cancer?

    1. Gastroesophageal reflux

    2. Human papillomavirus

    3. Alcohol use

    4. Second-hand tobacco smoke

    5. All of the above

  1. The most important factor in predicting facial nerve recovery after temporal bone fracture is

    1. Severity of injury

    2. Timing of onset

    3. Presence of associated infection

    4. Presence of sensorineural hearing loss

  1. Which of the following statements about bullous myringitis is true?

    1. The infection is usually painless.

    2. The etiology may be viral.

    3. The presentation involves an sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) alone.

    4. The hearing loss is usually permanent.

    5. The drainage is typically thick and mucopurulent.

41. Which one of the following has not been pro posed as an anatomic mechanism of noise damage?

    1. Mechanical injury

    2. Metabolic exhaustion

    3. Isehemia

    4. Ionic poisoning

    5. Chronic bleeding

42. Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause permanent Sensorineural hearing loss in patients?

    1. Erythromycjn

    2. Vancomycin

    3. Furosemide

    4. Cisplatin

    5. Torsemide

43. The pathology of hearing loss from congenital viral infections occurs primarily in the

    1. Perilymphatic structures

    2. Endolymphatic structures

    3. Spiral ganglia

    4. Vestibular ganglia

    5. All of the above

44. Hearing loss from mumps is most commonly

    1. Bilateral and congenital

    2. Unilateral and congenital

    3. Bilateral and acquired in childhood

    4. Unilateral and acquired in childhood

    5. Unilateral and acquired in adulthood

45. What is the mechanism of caloric stimulation of the labyrinth?

    1. Heating of the horizontal canal

    2. Heating of the anterior canal

    3. Direct stimulation of vestibular afferents

    4. Heating of the horizontal canal and direct stimulation of afferents

    5. None of the above

46. Which statement is true regarding the cochlear endolymph and perilymph?

    1. Perilymph is contained within the scala media and exhibits a high K and a low Na ion concentration.

    2. Endolymph is contained within the scalamedia and exhibits a high K and a low Na ionconcentration.

    3. Endolymph exhibits a negative electrical potential relative to perilymph.

    4. Perilymph is contained within the scala tympani and exhibits a positive electrical potential relative to endolymph.

    5. Endolymph and perilymph communicate by way of the helicotrema.

47. Which of the following statements about outer hair cells is true?

    1. There are roughly three times as many outerhair cells as inner hair cells.

    2. Only —5% of auditory nerve fibers innervate outer hair cells.

    3. Outer hair cells are more susceptible to noise damage than inner hair cells.

    4. Outer hair cells are more susceptible to damage by aminoglycoside use than inner hair cells.

    5. All of these are true

48. Absence of transient evoked otoacoustic emissions (TEOAEs) in a child is most consistent with which of the following conditions?

    1. Normal hearing

    2. Sensorineural hearing loss

    3. Conductive hearing loss

    4. Auditory neuropathy

    5. b and c

    6. b and d

49. Maximum conductive hearing loss occurs when

A. The incudostapedial joint is eroded behind an intact tympanic membrane.

B. The middle ear is filled with a thick effusion.

C. The tympanie membrane is completely perforated.

D. The round and oval windows are obliterated with otoselerosis.

E. The external canal is blocked by cerumen.

50. Otosclerosis is a disease that

    1. Is common to all

    2. Occurs only in females

    3. Is unique to the otc capsule

    4. Is found at birth

    5. Occurs mostly in males

51. Otosclerosis causes which type of hearing loss?

    1. A purely conductive hearing loss

    2. A progressive hearing loss

    3. A purely sensorineural hearing loss

    4. A profound hearing loss

    5. All of the above

52. For which condition is magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) not the imaging modality of choice?

    1. Conductive hearing loss

    2. Sensorineural hearing loss

    3. Intracranial meningeal disease

    4. Perineural spread of tumor

53. The smallest acceptable procedure to remove a squamous cell carcinoma localized to the osseous external auditory canal is

A. Localized resection of the skin of the external auditory canal with frozen-section margins

B. Sleeve resection of the external auditory canal, including the tympanie membrane

C. Lateral temporal bone resection

D. Subtotal temporal bone resection

E. Total temporal bone resection
54. The maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve (V2) travels through which foramen in the floor of the middle cranial fossa?

    1. Superior orbital fissure

    2. Foramen rotundum

    3. Foramen ovale

    4. Foramen spinosum

    5. Foramen lacerum

55. The frontal branch of the facial nerve runs deep to which of the following structures?

    1. Temporal parietal fascia

    2. Superficial layer of the deep temporal fascia

    3. Deep layer of the deep temporal fascia

    4. Periosteum of the zygomatic arch

    5. Temporal fat pad

56. Users of the multichannel auditory brainstem implant have experienced all of the following except

    1. Variations in pitch sensations across electrodes

    2. Open-set speech discrimination

    3. Auditory sensations

    4. Extra-auditory sensations

    5. All have been experienced

57. patient undergoes resection of a skull base mass with a transnasal endoscopically assisted approach and complains of visual changes in the recovery room and is ultimately found to have optic nerve damage. The injury to the optic nerve most likely accompanied injury in which of the following areas

    1. The optic foramen

    2. The anterior ethmoid air cells

    3. The lamina papyracea

    4. The superior-lateral sphenoid sinus wall

    5. The inferior-lateral sphenoid sinus wall

58. Surgical manipulation near which of the following nerves has the potential to cause brady cardia?

    1. CNV

    2. CNVI

    3. CN VII

    4. CN VIII

    5. CN IX

  1. Which of the following BEST describes Koerner’s septum?

  1. The petrosquamous suture

  2. The squamotympanic suture

  3. The petrotympanic suture

  4. The medial limit of the mastoid antrum

  5. The bony covering of the sigmoid sinus

  1. Cochlear anatomy and physiology. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

  1. Endolymph has an electrolyte composition similar to intracellular fluid (high potassium and low sodium ions).

  2. There are equal numbers outer and inner hair cells.

  3. The inner hair cells receive 95% of the afferent innervation from the cochlear nerve.

  4. The sterocillia act as mechanical tranducers.

  5. Inner hair cells are arranged in a single row.

  1. Which of the following statements BEST describes otoacoustic emissions (OAEs)?

  1. OAEs represent sound generated by the outer hair cells.

  2. OAEs are usually present in children with glue ear.

  3. A positive test is subjective based on the interpretation of the result

  4. In neonatal screening the demonstration of OAEs excludes severe SNHL

  5. Evoked QAEs are generated by all normal cochleas.

  1. patient is on your operating List for a right stapedotomy. Which of the following would cause you MOST concern?

  1. Suppurative ear discharge tympanic membrane perforation

  2. CochLear otoscterosis on the CT scan

  3. Previous stapes surgery

  4. A dead left ear

63. Changes in nasal physiology associated with aging include

    1. Reduction in nasal cilia

    2. increase in mucociliary clearance

    3. Decrease in olfactory epitheliuni

    4. Decrease in nasal airflow resistance

    5. General decrease in autonomic function

64. Head and neck malignancy arises as an alteration in

  1. a RNA

  2. b. DNA

  3. c. Protein

  4. d. in RNA

  5. RNA

65. All of the following regarding the analysis of the ears are correct except

    1. The ear protrudes from the skull at an angle approximately 20 to 30 degrees.

    2. The helix of the ear lies 15 to 25 mm lateral to the mastoid skin.

    3. The long axis of the ear is parallel to the long axis of the nasal dorsum and is noted to have a posterior rotation of approximately 15

    4. degrees.

    5. The width of the ear is approximately two-thirds its length.

66. What is the preferred biopsy technique for melanoma?

    1. Exeisional biopsy

    2. Shave biopsy

    3. Cryotherapy

    4. Curettage

    5. Electrodesjecatjon

67. Which of the following statements regarding scar re-excision is true?

      1. Re-excision with primary closure is an irregularization procedure.

      2. Sharp excision of the scar should proceed with the scalpel exactly parallel to the skin surface.

      3. Direct closure of the area should be performed without undermining.

      4. Vertical mattress sutures are an effective way to properly evert the wound edges.

68. In panfacial fractures, what should be the first and primary focus?

    1. Orbital reconstruction

    2. Establishing facial height

    3. Occlusion

    4. Repositioning the zygoma

    5. Repairing the central face

69. Which mimetic muscle is part of the superficial muscular aponeurotic system (SMAS)?

    1. Zygomatie major

    2. Zygomatic minor

    3. Orbicularis occuli

    4. Platysma

    5. Orbjcularis oris

70. After transection of the facial nerve, the distal branches retain their stinaulability with a portable electrical stimulator for how long?

    1. 1 day

    2. 3 days

    3. 1 week

    4. 3 weeks

    5. 12 months

71. What is the most appropriate indication for pursuing otoplasty?

    1. Age of patient

    2. Aurieulocephalic angle

    3. Cartilage proportions

    4. Distance of helical rim from scalp

    5. Cartilage stiffness

72. What is the embryologic basis for protruding ears?

    1. Autosomal-dominant inheritance

    2. Overgrowth of ectoderm from the first branchial arch

    3. Overgrowth of mesoderm from the third branchial arch

    4. Hypertrophy of the otic placode

    5. Maldevelopment of the forth hillock of His

73. The primary neuron cell body for cranial nerve I is located in the

    1. Olfactory bulb

    2. Nasal mucosa

    3. Entorhinal cortex

    4. Cribriform plate

    5. Prefrontal cortex

74. The most important tool in making the diagnosis of allergy is

    1. A positive skin prick test

    2. A positive intradermal skin test

    3. A positive history for symptoms associated with exposure

    4. A total IgE >100 IU/mL

    5. An mRAST value of class II or higher

75. Nonelergic rhinitis usually presents with all of the following symptoms except

    1. Rhinorrhea

    2. Nasal congestion

    3. Nasal osbstruction

    4. Itching

    5. Negative skin testin

76. Which of the following statements about atrophic rhinitis is false?

    1. May be related to granulomatous diseases

    2. Aggressive nasal surgery

    3. Associated with aging

    4. Presents with crusting and foul odor

    5. Demonstrates preservation of nasal airflow

77. Which of the following is false with regard to the uncinate process?

    1. It is part of the ethmoid bone.

    2. It is part of the lateral nasal wall.

    3. It contacts the agger nasi cell.

    4. It defines the infundibulum.

    5. It is lateral to the hiatus semilunaris

78. The sinus lateralis is the

  1. Space between the uncinate and the ethmoid bulla

  2. Space between the posterior ethmoid and the basal lamella

  3. Space between the ethmoid bulla and the basal lamella

  4. Space between the agger nasi cell and the middle turbinate when the turbinate inserts on the cribriform plate

79. The patient with a sinus computed tomography showing mucosal thickening occluding the osteomeatal complex

    1. Requires endoscopic sinus surgery

    2. May have a cold, a bacterial sinus infection, nasal polyps, or an irreversible obstruction of the maxillary infundibulum

    3. Should be treated with a broad-spectrum antibiotic

    4. Requires a culture-directed antibiotic and nasal steroid sprays

80. The imaging study most likely to provide accurate information regarding tumor extension intracranially or intraorbitally is

      1. Ultrasonography

      2. Computed tomography scan

      3. Magnetic resonance imaging

      4. Positron emission tomography scan

81. Which of the following about macrolide antibiotics is true?

      1. Chronic use often leads to resistance.

      2. Are recommended primarily for acute sinusitis.

      3. Should not be used in conjunction with nasal steroids.

      4. Have important antiinflammatory effects

      5. Have no role in treating sinusitis.

82. Patients with allergic fungal sinusitis have the following except

      1. Allergic mucin

      2. Nasal polyps

      3. Atopy

      4. Fungal allergies

      5. Immunodeficiency

83. Absolute Indications for endoscopic sinus surgery include all of the following except

      1. Mucoceles

      2. Headaches

      3. CSF rhinorrhea

      4. Complications of rhinosjnusjtjs

      5. Tumors

84. Which of the following statements regarding salivary flow rates is not true?

      1. They are reduced during sleep.

      2. They are increased during exercise.

      3. They are increased by mastication.

      4. They are increased before an episode of vomiting

      5. They steadily increase as the child grows and reach a maximum value by the age of 3 to 4 years.

85. The percentage of calculi in the submandibular gland is

      1. 20%

      2. 40%

      3. 50%

      4. 60%

      5. 80%

86. Two of the stages of swallow are under voluntary control. They are

      1. Oral and pharyngeal

      2. Pharyngeal and esophageal

      3. Oral and oral preparation

      4. Oral preparatory and pharyngeal

      5. Oral and esophageal

87. Which of the following diseases is most likely to have oral mucocutaneous ulcers?

      1. Pemphigus vulgaris

      2. Parkinson’s disease

      3. Renal osteodystrophy

      4. Down syndrome

88. Which of the following statements regarding the management of juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofi broma are true?

  1. Best results are obtained by the combination of surgery and adjuvant radiotherapy.

  2. The main consideration to the surgical approach is the age of the patient.

  3. Endoscopic resection is ideal for all tumors as it avoids facial incisions and soft tissue and bony disruption.

  4. Locally advanced tumors with intracranial extension can be effectively managed with radiotherapy alone.

  5. Recurrence seldom occurs if the tumor is completely removed.

89. What medical conditions are associated with obstructive sleep apnea syndrome?

    1. Depression

    2. Congestive heart failure

    3. Gastroesophageal reflux

    4. Diabetes mellitus

90. Which muscle opens the larynx?

  1. Cricothyroid

  2. Thyroarytenoid

  3. Lateral cricoarytenoid

  4. Posterior cricoarytenoid

  5. Interarytenold

91. The most common cause of unilateral vocal fold paresis is

    1. Thyroid surgery

    2. Thoracie surgery

    3. Stroke

    4. Idiopathic

    5. Arnold-Chiarj malformation

  1. Concerning the pharmacokinetics of local anesthetics, which of the following statements is FALSE?

  1. Lidocaine acts to reversibly block sodium channels in the nerve fibre.

  2. Lidocaine acts to cause vasoconstriction when injected subcutaneously.

  3. Alcoholic cirrhosis can reduce the metabolism of bupivocaine. -

  4. Local anaesthetics with a low pKa have a faster onset of action.

  5. 8.4% sodium bicarbonate added to 2% cocaine speeds up the onset of Action

  1. Concerning the hyoid bone, which of the following statements is FALSE?

  1. The lesser cornu of the hyoid is derived from the second branchia arch.

  2. The hyoid bone is incompletely ossified at birth.

  3. The hyoglossus and middle constricter muscles attach to the greater cornu.

  4. The intermediate tendon of the digastric muscle passes between the bifurcated tendon of the stylohyoid.

  5. The geniohyoid muscle acts to depress the larynx during swallowing.

  1. You are asked by the haematologists to perform a local anesthetic biopsy of a cervical lymph node. The patient, a 45-year-old woman, has had a suspected relapse of her non- Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Following her recent treatment, she is known to be thrombcytopaenic. What is the lowest platelet count (in platelets x 1OIl) that you would consider it acceptable to proceed with the operation?

  1. 10

  2. 20

  3. 50

  4. 100

  5. 150

  1. A patient with HIV is placed on the waiting list for a parotidectomy. You are keen to warn the operating department staff of his Infection risk. When the operating List is printed, which of the following is generally acceptable to use to highlight his status?

  1. HIV positive

  2. High-risk

  3. AIDS

  4. Special

  5. None of the above — it is not ethical to highlight his status on acirculated list.

  1. Which answer BEST describes the content of the cavernous sinus?

  1. Internal carotid artery, oculomotor, trochlear, abducent and ophthalmic and maxillary divisions of the trigeminal nerve

  2. Internal carotid artery, oculomotor, trochlear, abducent and ophthalmic and mandibular divisions of the trigeminal nerve

  3. Internal carotid arter)c superior ophthalmic vein, optic. abducent and ophthalmic and maxillary divisions of the trigeminal nerve

  4. Common carotid arter)c oculomotor. trochlear, abducent and ophthalmic and maxillary divisions of the trigeminal nerve

  5. Superior ophthalmic vein, oculomotor, troch(ear. abducent and ophthalmic and maxillary divisions of the trigeminal nerve

  1. If a mother and a father are both carriers of an autosomal recessive gene, which of the following statements is TRUE?

  1. All of their children will have the disease.

  2. Half of their children will have the disease.

  3. One quarter of the children will have the disease.

  4. All the males will have the disease.

  5. None of the children will have the disease.

  1. A patient is taking warfarin for paroxysmal atrial fibrillation (PAF). Under what circurristances wouLd it be reasonable to stop the warfarin and administer fresh frozen plasma (FFP) (or factor concentrate) and Vitamin K?

  1. Epistaxis controlled with anterior nasal packing

  2. Epistaxis controlled only with posterior and anterior nasal packing

  3. Elective admission for endoscopic sinus surgery

  4. Pharyngoscopy for globus pharyngeus symptoms

  5. Excision of a lipoma

  1. Which of the following is NOT an opening into the temporal bone?

  1. internal auditory canal

  2. Vestibular aqueduct

  3. Jugular foramen

  4. Cochlear aqueduct

  5. Subarcuate fossa

  1. Parasympathetic innervations to the sumandibular gland is carried by the:

  1. Lesser petrosal nerve

  2. Facial nerve

  3. Glossopharyngeal nerve

  4. Jacobsen's nerve

  5. Greater superficial petrosal nerve

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