Chondrocytes begin to die right in the middle of the diaphysis. This region becomes known as



Download 178 Kb.
Date27.01.2017
Size178 Kb.

  1. Chondrocytes begin to die right in the middle of the diaphysis .This region becomes known as

    1. The primary ossification center

    2. The secondary ossification center

    3. The lateral ossification center

    4. None of the above




  1. Growth of soft tissues occurs by a combination of

    1. Hyperplasia and synchondrosis

    2. Synchondrosis only

    3. Intramembranous ossification-

    4. None of the above

  2. Spheno-Occipital Synchondrosis increases

    1. The width of the cranial vault

    2. The length of cranial vault

    3. The length of cranial base

    4. All of the above


4) Early closure of the suture called

  1. Synchondrosis

  2. Ankylosis.

  3. Synostosis

  4. Epiphysis


5) The maxilla develops entirely by

  1. Intramembranous ossification

  2. Endochondral ossification

  3. Both intramembranous and endochondral ossification

  4. None of the above


6) The mandible develops entirely by

  1. Intramembranous ossification only

  2. Endochonral ossification only

  3. Both intramembranous and endochondral ossification

  4. None of the above

7) Development of mandible begins as a condensation of mesenchyme cells just

  1. Inside Meckel's cartilage and proceeds entirely as an endochondral bone formation.

  2. Lateral to Meckel's cartilage and proceeds entirely as an endochondral bone formation

  3. Lateral Meckel's cartilage and proceeds entirely as an intramembranace bone formation

  4. None of the above

8) Moss stated the determinant for growth of the craniofacial skeleton, would appear to lie in

  1. Cartilage

  2. Bone

  3. Soft tissue

  4. None of the above

9) The terminal planes in the primary dentition stage

  1. Are the distal surfaces of the maxillary and mandibular second permanent molars?

  2. Are the distal surfaces of the maxillary and mandibular first permanent molars?

  3. Are the distal surfaces of the maxillary and mandibular second primary molars?

  4. Are the distal surfaces of the maxillary and mandibular first primary molars?

10) Bone tissue grows by

  1. Interstitial growth

  2. Differentiation of cartilaginous tissue

  3. None of the above

  4. All of the above


11) Proximal stripping in the lower incisors area is carried out in

  1. Young patients.

  2. Patients susceptible to caries.

  3. Patients who has small incisors

  4. None of the above

12) Arch length tends to

  1. Decrease during age

  2. Increase during age

  3. Stay the same during age

  4. None of the above

13) The fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) takes place in the

  1. First month of the embroyonic craniofacial development

  2. Second month of the embroyonic craniofacial development

  3. Third month month of the embroyonic craniofacial development

  4. Fourth month of the embroyonic craniofacial development


14) One of the most apparent facial characteristics in Crouzonˊs syndrome

A) Concave profile appearance due to protruded mandible

B) Convex profile appearance due to protruded maxilla

C) Concave profile appearance due to mid face deficiency

D) In frontal view the eyes looks very closed to each other

15) A new baby born obtain milk, in breast feeding mother by

  1. Sucking activity

  2. Suckling activity

  3. Both at the same time

  4. None of the above

16) One of the most obvious characteristics in patients suffering from ectodermal dysplasia is:

  1. Severe crowding in the upper arch only

  2. Severe crowding in the lower arch only

  3. Severe crowding in the upper and lower arch

  4. None of the above


17) In Steiner cephalometric analysis hold away ratio means

  1. The prominent the chin the prominent the lower incisors can be

  2. The prominent the chin the lower incisors shouldn’t be prominent

  3. The prominent the maxilla the prominent the lower incisors can be

  4. None of the above

18) First order bend (an offset position of molars tube) are necessary to

  1. Keep the mesio- buccal cusp of first upper molar more prominent than disto-buccal cusp

  2. Keep the disto-buccal cusp of first upper molar more prominent than mesio- buccal cusp

  3. Keep the mesio- buccal cusp and the disto-buccal cusp of first upper molar at the same level

  4. None of the above


19- One of the indications that ensures that the patient is wearing his functional appliance is the presence of the pterygoid effect, pterygiod effect which means

  1. The formation of calculus on the appliance

  2. Anterior habitual posturing of the mandible when removing the appliance

  3. Posterior habitual posturing of the mandible when removing the appliance

  4. None of the above


20-A female patient 21 years of age came to your office with an overjet of 10mm, deep over bite, convex profile minimal upper crowding, and posterior cross bite. Cephalometric findings showed (GO-Me\ S-N = 34) – (ANS Me\NM =55) (SNA =83 - SNB=72) the best choice of treatment would be

  1. Expansion and surgical extraction

  2. Expansion and Head gear therapy

  3. Expansion and Functional therapy

  4. none of the above



21-Which of the following is be observed after opening the mid palatal suture

  1. Diastema between upper lateral central incisors

  2. Diastema between upper lateral incisors and canine

  3. Lingual crown tipping of the upper molars due to high force

  4. None of the above


22-A pre-functional phase might be:

  1. Retroclination of the upper anterior segment

  2. Expand the upper arch

  3. Proclination the lower anterior segment

  4. all of the above


23-All are factors affecting upper incisor crown exposure except:

  1. Aging

  2. Gender

  3. Upper lip length

  4. Psychological trauma


24-Witts analysis defines:

  1. The saggital relation of the jaws

  2. The vertical relation of the jaws

  3. The transverse relation of the jaws

  4. All of the above


25) Post functional phase treatment in class II div 2 might be:

  1. Proclinatin of the upper anteriors

  2. Usage of chin cup therapy

  3. Usage of face mask therapy

  4. None of the above


26) What are the disadvantages of functional appliances as compared to fixed appliances?

  1. Less risk of enamel decalcification

  2. increased risk of root resorption

  3. Reduced ability to perform fine detailing

  4. none of the above


27) A distal shoe space maintainer is indicated when a primary

  1. Canine in cross bite

  2. First molar is prematurely lost

  3. Second primary molar is lost after the eruption of a permanent first molar

  4. Second primary molar is lost prior the eruption of a permanent first molar


28) The facial look of a mouth breather is typically

  1. Long and wide

  2. short and wide

  3. Long and narrow

  4. short and narrow


29) - The most inferior point on the contour of bony chin is

  1. Pogonion

  2. Gonion

  3. Menton

  4. Gnathion


30) The most desirable effect most commonly associated with the use of removable appliance

  1. Greater ability to maintain good oral hygiene

  2. Tendency for the teeth to extrude

  3. Tendency for the teeth to intrude

  4. Tendency for the root apex to move in the direction opposite from the crown


31) A female patient suffering from a reverse overjet of 2 mm in the upper right lateral region, this lateral is trapped palately and has an adequate available space for it within the arch, the lower arch is well aligned, the choice of treatment would be

A-Posterior bite plane and face mask to pull the maxilla forward B - Posterior bite plane and headgear to distalize the posterior segment

C - Posterior bite plane in a removable appliance in addition to Z spring

D- Anterior bite plane in a removable appliance in addition to finger spring
32) Ugly duckling stage is seen during the eruption of permanent

  1. Maxillary lateral incisors

  2. maxillary central incisors

  3. Maxillary canines

  4. None of the above


33) What information you can not be obtained from a lateral cephalogram?

  1. Vertical relation

  2. Anterio-posterior relation

  3. Transverse relation

  4. Soft tissue relation


34) If you double the length of the wire, what happens to the stiffness?

  1. Increases

  2. Decreases

  3. No effect

  4. No changes in stiffness

35) Which of the following cephalometric landmarks is located at the suture between two bones?

A) Gonion B) Nasion

C) Porion D) Sella
36)-Premature loss of the primary upper second molar may lead to

  1. Skeletal class II malocclusion

  2. Skeletal class III malocclusion

  3. Arch length deficiency

  4. None of the above

37) A 3-year-old child has a 2 mm diastema between the primary maxillary central incisors. The mother is worried and consults an orthodontist. The orthodontist should advise the mother that:

  1. Frenectomy should be considered.

  2. Habit probably caused this condition and to be treated.

  3. C-The child will need early orthodontic treatment.

  4. None of the above


38)-The late mesial shift is referred to

  1. The conversion of the straight terminal plane to a distal step, which provides a Class I relationship of the permanent first molars

  2. the conversion of the straight terminal plane to a mesial step, which provides Class II relationship of the permanent first molars

  3. The conversion of the straight terminal plane to a mesial step, which provides a Class I relationship of the permanent first molars

  4. None of the above


39)-The maxilla and the mandible originates from the

  1. First pharyngeal arch

  2. Second pharyngeal arch

  3. Third pharyngeal arch

  4. Fourth pharyngeal arch


40) The apparent posterior unilateral cross bite involving the permanent maxillary first molar may be

  1. Associated with mandibular shift

  2. A bilateral constriction of the maxilla

  3. A narrow V shaped maxilla

  4. All of the above


41) Derotation of rotated incisors usually needs

  1. More space than its rotated position

  2. Less space than its rotated position

  3. No difference due to space analysis

  4. None of the above

42) A male patient 22 years of age came to our office with reverse overjet of -8mm, no crowding in the upper arch, and lower arch. SNA = 82 SNB = 88 lower incisor to GO-ME =85 upper incisor to S\N =107 the choice of treatment

  1. decompensation and lower premolar extraction

  2. Compensation and mandibular surgery

  3. Functional therapy (frankel III)

  4. decompensation and mandibular surgery

  5. Lower first premolars extraction


43) - The Bolton's analysis helps in determining disproportion in size between

  1. Maxillary and mandibular teeth

  2. Maxillary teeth within the upper arch

  3. mandibular teeth within the lower arch

  4. None of the above


44) Even though bone stops growing in length in early adulthood, but

  1. It can continue to increase in thickness or diameter after adulthood

  2. It stops increasing in thickness or diameter after adulthood

  3. Increasing in length and diameter starts and stop together

  4. None of the above


45) A female patient 11 years of age came to our office with an overjet of 8mm normal over bite, convex profile minimal upper crowding, and posterior cross bite. Cephalometric findings showed (GO-Me\ S-N = 34) – (ANS Me\NM =55) (SNA =83 - SNB=75) the best choice of treatment would be

  1. Expansion and serial extraction

  2. Expansion and Head gear therapy

  3. Expansion and Reverse head gear

  4. Expansion and Functional therapy


46) A female patient 29 years of age came to our office with 4 bucally erupted canine, with zero mm of space available for them, with a posterior cross bite, and all teeth are erupted. She has normal overjet, and overbite, skeletal and dental cephalometric findings are normal the choice of treatment would be:

  1. Rapid palatal expansion and molar distalization for the upper and lower posterior region

  2. Slow palatal expansion and molar distalization for the upper and lower posterior region

  3. surgically assisted Rapid palatal expansion and molar distalization for the upper and lower posterior region

  4. Surgically assisted Rapid palatal expansion and extraction of the upper and lower first premolars

47) The Twin Block appliance is best used for:

  1. Increased over bite cases

  2. Cases where the maxillary/ Mandibular planes angle is not to be increased

  3. Cases where an expansion screw is to be added

  4. Class III skeletal cases

  5. All of the above

  6. A and C

  7. B and C


48. In an attractive evaluation :

  1. The upper incisor curve should be parallel to the lower lip inner edge curve

  2. The upper incisor curve should be parallel to the lower lip inner edge curve

  3. The upper gingival show is 5mm upon smiling

  4. None of the above


49) Serial extraction is indicated primarily in

  1. Class I skeletal malocclusion

  2. Class II skeletal malocclusion

  3. Class III skeletal malocclusion

  4. No difference we can apply it in any type of malocclusion


50) - A headgear can serve to improve a class II malocclusion by

  1. Redirecting maxillary growth

  2. Stimulating madibular growth

  3. Positioning the maxillary teeth distally in the maxilla

  4. Only (A) and (C)

  5. Only (A) and (B)


51) All the following can not move the upper molars mesially expect

  1. Cervical head gear

  2. Bionater

  3. Face mask

  4. Chin cup


52) Which of the following is least likely to result from a prolonged thumb sucking habit?

  1. Deep over bite

  2. constriction of the maxilla

  3. Protrusion of maxillary incisors

  4. all of the above


53) Hydrocephalic patients has large cranium and small brain, and they are very clever

  1. First second and third statements are right

  2. First second and third statements are wrong

  3. First and second statements are right third is false

  4. First and third statements are right second is false


54) - Remodelling of the palatal vault (which is also floor of the nose)

A- Bone is removed from the floor of the nose and deposits to the roof of the mouth

B) Bone is removed from the roof of the nose and deposits to the floor of the noise

C) Bone is removed from the roof of the nose and deposits to the roof of the mouth

D) None of the above
55-Which of the following appliances can treat Class II div1 as a fixed functional appliance

  1. Functional Regulator II

  2. Functional Regulator III

  3. Herbst appliance

  4. Twin Block appliance


56) In functional appliances, over jet is decreased by:

A - Squeezing the arms of the labial bow and retracting the upper incisors B - Squeezing the arms of Robert retractor and retracting the upper incisors

C - Functional appliances decrease only overbites

D- None of the above
57) A 13 years male orthodontic patient was referred to your office, after examining him, you noticed the following: the bracket in the upper right lateral is broken, and the same lateral is slightly rotated and extruded, molar relationship is in class II, the upper second molars did erupt yet, decreased over bite and little increase in overjet ,a bilateral cross bite in the posterior region ,and the patient told you that he lost his head gear.

U placed a new bracket to the upper right lateral more gingivally and your 0.16 NiTi wire engaged the slots all the brackets within the arch, what is most likely to happen

A- Upper right lateral will extrude and adjacent tooth intrude

B- Upper right lateral will extrude only

C- Upper right lateral and adjacent toot will extrude

D - Upper right lateral will intrude and adjacent tooth extrude


58) In the same patient, now you put the broken bracket in the ideal position your best choice wire is

  1. 0.014 round NiTi

  2. 16 x 22 NiTi

  3. 0.016 stainless steel

  4. no difference


59) In the same patient you recommend to expand the maxilla by means of rapid palatal expansion your best choice of expansion is

  1. Bonded RPE

  2. Banded RPE

  3. Using TPA

  4. Using quad helix


60) The same patient asked you about the head gear, you recommended

  1. Cervical head gear

  2. Combined head gear

  3. High pull head gear

  4. None of the above


61. The focal film distance for lateral cephalogram is :

  1. Four feet

  2. Three feet

  3. Five feet

  4. Six feet

  5. Two feet


62) In the final stages of treatment small detailing bends are made in the horizontal plane of the upper arch especially in standard edgewise brackets which are:

  1. Molar inset, canine offset, lateral inset

  2. Molar inset, canine eminence ,lateral inset

  3. Molar offset, canine eminence, lateral offset

  4. Molar offset, canine eminence, lateral inset



63) When using wide orthodontic brackets for orthodontic treatment

  1. The inter - bracket distance reduces and the range of action of the arch wire reduces

  2. The inter - bracket distance reduce and the range of action of the arch wire increase

  3. The inter - bracket distance increase and the range of action of the arch wire reduces

  4. The inter - bracket distance increase and the range of action of the arch wire increases

64) In lower fixed appliance, incorporating a lip bumper to the lower molar bands in an extraction case, to retract the lower canine it utilizes

  1. The anchorage afforded by the lower lip to prevent forward movement of the lower molars

  2. The anchorage afforded by the lower lip to facilitate the forward movement of the lower molars

  3. The anchorage afforded by the lower lip to prevent distal movement of the lower molars

  4. None of the above


65) Concerning canine retraction which of the methods offers less friction

    1. In sliding mechanics using an elastics for canine retraction

    2. In sliding mechanics using NiTi open coil spring for canine retraction

    3. In sliding mechanics using NiTi closed coil spring for canine retraction

    4. Closing loop mechanic (such as T loop) for canine retraction


66) Which of the following points is not true regarding Piezoelectricity and tooth movement?

  1. Piezoelectricity is a phenomenon observed in many crystalline materials (bone and collagen).

  2. In Piezoelectricity a deformation of the crystal produces a flow of electric current as electrons are displaced from one part of the lattice to another.

  3. Tooth movement can be explained by the fact that Electric currents decay quickly and When forces are released opposite flow of electrons occurs.

  4. Changes in bone metabolism controlled by electric signals produced when bone bends, important for normal skeletal structure.

  5. Voltages produced are called streaming potential which will increase cell membrane activity


67) The normal periodontal tissue contains all of the following cells that proliferate at different stages of tooth movement except:

Fibroblasts

  1. Osteoblasts,

  2. osteoclasts

  3. Cell rests of Malasseze

  4. Mesenchymal stem cells

  5. All of the above with no exception


68) Some Fibers of the PDL are stretched, torn and ruptured, whereas others are compressed and undergo aseptic necrosis during orthodontic movement, these fibers are

  1. Collagen fibers

  2. oxytalan fibers

  3. Both collagenous and oxytalan fibers

  4. none of the above is true

69) The Optimal Force in orthodontics can be defined and explained by which of the following

High enough to stimulate cellular activity without completely occluding blood vessels in the PDL

  1. In a scientific field known as mechanotransduction.

  2. A continuous forces leads to occluded blood supply to PDL and aseptic necrosis

  3. A force needed to start biologic reactions occurring on the underside of lamina dura, not between lamina dura and the root.

  4. All of the above

  5. A, B and C

  6. A, B only

  7. A,B and D


70) Which of the following may describe force in orthodontics?

  1. Force Magnitude (Level) should be In the range of 10 to 200 grams

  2. Force varies with the type of tooth movement.

  3. Light, continuous forces are currently considered to be most effective in inducing tooth movement.

  4. Heavy forces cause damages and fail to move the teeth.

  5. All of the above

  6. None of the above


71) Effects of HEAVY continuous forces on the periodontium could be which of the following

  1. Blood supply to PDL occluded but will not lead to Aseptic necrosis

  2. PDL becomes “hyalinized” – “HYALINIZATION” leads to a process are called “Frontal RESORPTION”.

  3. all the biologic tooth movement occur between the root and the lamina dura

  4. Osteoclasts come from adjacent bone spaces


72) As explained by the pressure-tension theory of tooth movement, what type of activity takes place on the compression side of a tooth during movement caused by light forces?

      1. The piezoelectric current transmits signals to progenitor cells

      2. Bone formation

      3. Undermining resorption

      4. Frontal resorption

      5. All of the above


73) Which of the following may describe the Ground substance of the PDL during orthodontic tooth movement?

  1. I t is composed of proteoglycans and other proteins

  2. Their contents and expression are altered upon tooth movement

  3. Water squeezed in and out during tooth movement

  4. All of the above are true

  5. None of the above is true

74) Which of the following describe proper Force Duration used in orthodontics

  1. Threshold 6 hrs per day.

  2. No tooth movement if forces are applied less than 6 hrs/d.

  3. From 6 to 24 hrs/d, the longer the force is applied, the more the teeth will move.

  4. all of the above

  5. none of the above


75) Couple of force can be described by all of the following except

  1. Two forces of opposite directions and with non-overlapping points of application.

  2. Translation of teeth "Bodily movement"occurs in response to appropriate force couples

  3. Can be applied by a removable and fixed appliance for proper tooth movement

  4. All of the above are true with no exception


76) Stiffness of an orthodontic wire is a function of

  1. Length of the wire segment

  2. Diameter of the wire segment

  3. Alloy composition

  4. A and C

  5. A, B, and C


77) Which of the following is easiest to accomplish?

  1. Tipping molars distally

  2. Tipping incisors labially

  3. Intruding anterior teeth

  4. Bodily moving incisors mesially


78) Which of the following orthodontic problems should be treated, early, in a preschool-age child?

1. Midline diastema

2. Severe bimaxillary protrusion

3. Habits that affect occlusion

4. Anterior crossbite

5. Maxillary arch constriction

  1. 1 and 2

  2. 1,2,3,4

  3. 2,3,4

  4. 3

  5. 3,4,5


79) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Nickel Titanium alloys

  1. Exceptional springiness and superelasticity

  2. Can exist in more than one form or crystal structure. The martensite form exists at lower temperatures, the austenite form at higher temperatures

  3. Shape memory effect

  4. The force-deflection curve for NiTi wire is towards vertical unlike the stainless steel curve which is more horizontal occurs because of a phase transition in grain structure from austenite to martensite, in response to applied force.

  5. All of the above are characterstics without exceptions

80) If the line of action of a force is at a distance far from the center of resistance of a tooth, what will be the result?

  1. Intrusion

  2. Rotation around the long axis of the tooth

  3. Tipping

  4. Translation


81) When the line of action of a force applied to a tooth passes through its center of resistance, how do you expect the tooth will the move?

  1. Bodily translation

  2. Pure root movement

  3. Uncontrolled tipping

  4. It will undergo a turning movement (moment)


82) A moment to force ratio of >10 will cause which of the following?

A. Translation

B. Uncontrolled tipping

C. Root movement (torque)

D. Bodily movement
83) Proportional limit of the wire is defined as:

  1. The maximum load a wire can sustain with some permanent deformation that is the Maximum force wire can be used as a spring.

  2. A point 0.1 % deformation is measured

  3. A point at which any permanent deformation is first observed

  4. The ratio between the stress and the strain below the elastic limit

  5. All of the above None


84) The surgical closure of which organ follows the role of 10 in a cleft patient

  1. closure of cleft lip

  2. closure of palate

  3. closure of cleft lip and palate

  4. closure of villopharyngeal insufficiency

  5. All of the above

  6. None of the above

85) A closure of which of the following organs helps the cleft patient to overcome hearing problems and speech

  1. closure of cleft lip

  2. closure of palate

  3. closure of cleft lip and palate

  4. closure of villopharyngeal insufficiency

  5. All of the above

  6. None of the above

86) Which of the following procedures require antibiotic prophylaxis coverage before it is being carried out according to the American Heart Association

  1. Placement of separating elastics

  2. Changing arch wire

  3. Placement of band

  4. Tooth brushing

  5. None of the above

  6. All of the above


87) When the tooth moves bodily (translation) by the effect of orthodontic force, the center of rotation is located

  1. At The same place at the center of resistance

  2. At 33% of the length of the root

  3. At the middle of the tooth

  4. At The crown of the tooth

  5. At Infinity

  6. All of the above

  7. None of the above


88) The Increase in force will have which of the following effects on the center of rotation of the tooth

  1. Will move the center of rotation apically

  2. Will move the center of rotation occlusally increasing torque effect

  3. Will have no effect on the center of rotation

  4. Will enhance bodily movement of the root more than tipping

  5. Will increase the tipping effect of the tooth


89) What is the reason for the lag phase in orthodontic tooth movement

  1. The lag phase is needed waiting for cyclic AMP to be formed to start orthodontic tooth movement

  2. The lag phase is needed for aspiration of the compact bone of the lamina dura

  3. The lag phase is needed for cleaning hyalanized tissue in high stress areas of the periodontal ligaments

  4. The lag phase is needed for the increase in capillary blood pressure to start tooth movement

  5. All of the above

  6. None of the above

  7. A, b, and c

  8. B and c

  9. A and d


90) The optimum force for tooth movement is defined as the force enough to move the tooth without causing an area of unidentified cellular structures, it is equal to

  1. the force enough to compress the bone

  2. the capillary blood pressure in the periodontal ligaments

  3. to the yield strength of the wire used to move the tooth

  4. to the ultimate strength of the wire used to create the force on the tooth

  5. All of the above

  6. None of the above

91) During mastication the force exerted on the teeth range from:

  1. 400-700 pounds

  2. 150-500 pounds

  3. 50-150 pounds

  4. Up to 1000 pounds

92) Increased tendency of relapse after orthodontic treatment is seen in patient who Undergo

  1. Counterclockwise surgical advancement of mandible.

  2. Increased vertical dimension in face and acute gonial angle

  3. Rotation movement of teeth

  4. All of above

93) Multiple supernumerary and unurupted teeth are characteristic feature of:

  1. Treacher Collins syndrome

  2. Ectodermal dysplasia

  3. Cleidocranial dysplasia

  4. Crouzon`s syndrome

94) Cleft in of lip occurs because of failure of fusion between:

  1. Median nasal process and lateral nasal process

  2. Frontal process and median nasal process

  3. Frontal process and lateral nasal process

  4. None of above


95) The characteristic of swallowing include

  1. Teeth together swallow

  2. Mandible stabilize by fifth cranial nerve

  3. Tongue is held behind the incisor teeth and against the palate.

  4. All of the above


96) ANB angles use to access:

  1. Sagittale jaw discrepancy

  2. Vertical jaw discrepancy

  3. Soft tissue profile

  4. Crowding


97) Relapse in rotated teeth can be avoided by:

  1. By csf

  2. By frenectomy

  3. By maintaining integrity of arch

  4. By deep scaling


98) In Rapid Palatal Expansion activation is done:

  1. Once weekly

  2. Twice weekly

  3. Twice daily

  4. Once monthly


99) Retention in removable appliances is obtained by:

  1. Z_spring

  2. Adams clasps

  3. Expansion screw

  4. Retraction spring


100) In class ll div 2 malocclusion the interincisal angle:

  1. Increased

  2. Decreased

  3. Not affected

  4. Non of above









Share with your friends:


The database is protected by copyright ©dentisty.org 2019
send message

    Main page