Anatomy of auricle and external auditory channel and embryology



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ANATOMY OF AURICLE AND EXTERNAL AUDITORY CHANNEL AND EMBRYOLOGY

1. Ear lobule is made of:

a. Skin only

b. Cartilage

c. Skin with fat

d. Fibrous tissue

2. All of the following nerves supply auricle of ear except?

a. Greater auricular nerve

b. Lesser petrosal nerve

c. Auriculotemporal nerve

d. Lesser occipital nerve

3. All of the following nerves supply the medial aspect of auricle except?

a. Greater auricular nerve

b. Lesser occipital nerve

c. Facial nerve

d. Auriculotemporal nerve

4. Major portion of auricle is supplied by:

a. Greater auricular nerve

b. Lesser occipital nerve

c. Facial nerve

d. Auriculotemporal nerve

5. Arnold nerve is a branch of:

a. Vagus nerve

b. Hypoglossal nerve

c. Glossopharyngeal nerve

d. Trigeminal nerve

6. Jacobson’s nerve is a branch of:

a. Vagus nerve

b. Hypoglossal nerve

c. Glossopharyngeal nerve

d. Trigeminal nerve

7. Which of these is not a derivative of 3rd pharyngeal / branchial arch?

a. Lesser cornu

b. Stylopharyngeus

c. Greater cornu

d. Lower hyoid

8. Greater cornu of hyoid is derived from which branchial arch:

a. I


b. II

c. III


d. IV

9. Which of the following intrinsic laryngeal muscles is NOT derived from branchial arch IV:

a. Cricoarytenoid musle

b. Interarytenoid muscle

c. Thyroarytenoid muscle

d. Cricothyroid muscle

10. Thyroid cartilage is derived from which branchial arch:

a. II и III

b. III и IV

c. IV и V

d. IV и IV

11. Stapes are derived from which branchial arch:

a. I


b. II

c. III


d. IV

12. All are derived from branchial arch except?

a. Ultimobrancheal body

b. Stapes

c. Laryngeal cartilage

d. Mandible

13. All are true about external auditory meatus except?

a. It extends from the bottom of concha to tympanic membrane & measures 24 cm in length.

b. Fissure of Santorini in cartilaginous part can transmit infection to the parotid or superficial mastoid infection

c. Foramen of Huschkle may present from Antero-inferior part of bony channel

d. Outer 1/3 rd is bony and inner 2/3rd is cartilaginous.

14. Length of cartilaginous part of external auditory channel:

a. 1.5 cm

b. 2.4 cm

c. 8 cm


d. < 1 cm

15. Foramen of Huschkle is congenital pathology located between:

a. Bony part of EAC and submandibular gland

b. Cartilaginous part of EAC and submandibular gland

c. Bony part of EAC and parotid gland

d. Cartilaginous part of EAC and parotid gland

16. All are the true about external ear except:

a. Outer part of the external acoustic canal are made up of frame work of single yellow elastic cartilage covered with skin

b. Only area between tragus nd crus of helix without cartilage is incisura terminalis

c. Cartilage from the tragus can be used in reconstructive surgery of middle ear

d. Composite grafts of cartilage and skin from pinna are not used for correction of defects of nasal ala

17. What is the length of external auditory canal?

a. 2.5 cm

b. 1.5 cm

c. 1 cm


d. 2 cm

18. Ceruminous glands are seen in which part of external auditory canal

a. 2/3 outer and 1/3 inner

b. 1/3 outer and 2/3 inner

c. 1/3rd outer

d. 2/3rd inner

19. Retromolar trigone is located at

a. Posterior part of mandible

b. Ascending ramus of mandible

c. Submandibular area

d. Digastric muscle

ANATOMY OF MIDDLE EAR AND INNER EAR

20. Corda tympani is seen on which wall of middle ear

a. Anterior wall

b. Medial wall

c. Posterior wall

d. Lateral wall

21. Anterior wall of the middle ear is also known as:

a. Outer wall

b. Mastoid wall

c. Carotid wall

d. Jugular wall

22. Which of the following is not a content of medial wall of middle ear:

a. Oval window

b. Round window

c. Processus cochleariformis

d. Aditus ad antrum

23. Tegmen tympani separates middle ear from:

a. Anterior cranial fossa

b. Posterior cranial fossa

c. Middle cranial fossa

d. Superior cranial fossa

24. Otosclerosis is seen which wall of middle ear:

a. Anterior

b. Posterior

c. Lateral

d. Medial

25. Tensor tympani is inserted in:

a. Tympanic membrane

b. Malleus

c. Incus


d. Stapes

26. Fallopian canal contains which cranial nerve:

a. 5


b. 6

c. 7


d. 8

27. Length of internal acoustic meatus:

a. 5 mm


b. 1 cm

c. 2 cm


d. 3 cm

28. Shortest length of middle ear:

a. 2 mm


b. 4 mm

c. 6 mm


d. 1 cm

29. Bill’s bar divides:

a. Facial nerve and cochlear nerve

b. Facial nerve and superior vestibular cochlear nerve

c. Facial nerve and inferior vestibular cochlear nerve

d. Superior and inferior vestibular cochlear nerve

30. Cochlea function is:

a. Balancing

b. Hearing

c. Otolith organ

d. All of the above

31. All are required for balancing except:

a. Visual system

b. Olfactory system

c. Proprioception

d. Vestibule and cochlea

32. Cupula is seen in:

a. Saccule

b. Utricle

c. Semicircular canal

d. Cochlea

33. Stria vascularis are seen in:

a. Vestibule

b. Utricle

c. Cochlea

d. Middle ear

TESTS OF AUDITORY SYSTEM

34. Most common frequency of Tuning fork used in ENT:

a. 256 Hz

b. 512 Hz

c. 1024 Hz

d. 2048 Hz

35. Which of the following is the best tuning fork to do Rinne’s and Weber’s tests:

a. 128 Hz

b. 256 Hz

c. 512 Hz

d. 1024 Hz

36. All of the following are turning fork test except:

a. Gelle test

b. Rinne test

c. Schwabach’s test

d. Acoustic bone conduction

37. Otoacoustic emissions are derived from:

a. Tympanic membrane

b. Ossicles

c. Cochlea

d. Vestibule

38. Sensorineural deafness in neonates is best diagnosed by:

a. BERA


b. OAE

c. Tympanometry

d. Electrocochleography

39. Caloric test is done for:

a. Semicircular canal

b. Macula

c. Saccule

d. Cochlea

40. Caloric test with warm and cold water stimulates which of the following structures?

a. Saccule

b. Lateral semicircular canal

c. Superior semicircular canal

d. Posterior semicircular canal

41. Vestibular function is tested by:

a. Fistula test

b. Acoustic reflex

c. Galvanic stimulation

d. Impedance audiometry

DISEASES OF EAR, TREATMENT AND REHABILITATION

42. Normal hearing:

a. 20 - 20 000 Hz

b. 30 – 30 000 Hz

c. 200 - 2000 Hz

d. 300 – 3000 Hz

43. Moderately severe hearing loss:

a. 30-40 dB

b. 41-60 dB

c. 56-70 dB

d. 71-90 dB

44. Noise induced hearing loss is seen maximum at:

a. 1-2 khz

b. 3-4 khz

c. 5-6 khz

d. 7-10 khz

45. Myringitis bullosa is commonly caused by:

a. Bacteria

b. Virus

c. Fungi


d. Protozoa

46. Bullous myringitis is caused by:

a. Virus

b. Bacteria

c. Fungus

d. Autoimmune

47. Acute otitis media is most commonly caused by:

a. Streptococcus pneumoniae

b. Hemophilus influenza

c. Staphylococcus aureus

d. Klebsiella pneumonia

48. Which of the following is resorbed in otitis media development:

a. Pus


b. Blood

c. Air


d. All of the above

49. According to TOS classification of chronic otitis media in which stage is the retraction pocket adherent to the handle of malleus and full extent of the retraction pocket can be clearly seen.

a. Stage 1

b. Stage 2

c. Stage 3

d. Stage 4

50. All are extra cranial complications of chronic otitis media except:

a. Ossicular damage

b. Petrositis

c. Gradenigo syndrome

d. Lateral sinus thrombophlebitis

51. Most common intracranial manifestation of late chronic otitis media:

a. Brain abscess

b. Cerebellar abscess

c. Lateral sinus thrombophlebitis

d. Labyrinthine fistula

52. Most common extracranial complication of CSOM:

a. Meningitis

b. Ossicle damage

c. Mastoiditis

d. Labyrinthine fistula

53. Most common type of hearing loss in TB otitis media:

a. Conductive hearing loss

b. SNHL

c. Presbycusis



d. Hyperacusis

54. Which one of the following is characteristic of tubercular otitis media:

a. Marginal perforation of tympanic membrane

b. Multiple perforation of pars tensa

c. Large central perforation of tympanic membrane

d. Attic perforation

55. Which of the following ear ossicle is 1st to get affected in otitis media:

a. Long process of incus

b. Stapes

c. Handle of malleus

d. Body of malleus

56. Gradenigo’s syndrome involves which cranial nerve:

a. CN IV, V

b. CN V, VI

c. CN VII,VIII

d. CN IX, X

57. Which is not a component of Gradenigo’s syndrome:

a. Deafness

b. Ear discharge

c. Retroorbital pain

d. Double vision

58. Which is causative organism for malignant otitis externa:

a. Virus


b. Bacteria

c. Fungi


d. Protozoa

59. Malignant otitis externa affects with cranial nerve:

a. 7th

b. 8th

c. 9th

d. 10

60. Ramsay hunt syndrome is due to:

a. Herpes zoster virus

b. Herpes simplex virus

c. Varicella zoster

d. Pseudomonas

61. What will be the probable site of lesion causing slowly progressive facial palsy:

a. Skull


b. Parotid

c. Geniculate ganglion

d. Middle ear

62. Schwartz’s sign is seen in:

a. Otosclerosis

b. Meniere’s disease

c. Retrocochlear lesion

d. None

63. Carhart’s notch dips at:

a. 2 Hz


b. 200 Hz

c. 2000 Hz

d. 2000 MHz

64. Which of the following is earliest and consistent symptom of glomus tumor:

a. Hoarseness

b. Tinnitus

c. Otorrhea

d. Dysphagia

65. Hennebert sign is seen in:

a. Otosclerosis

b. Vestibular neuritis

c. Menier’s disease

d. Rotatory nystagmus

66. Hearing defect in Menier’s disease:

a. Hyperacusis

b. Hypoacusis

c. Diplacusis

d. Paracusia Willis

67. In case of BPPV, which semicircular canal is affected?

a. Lateral semicircular canal

b. Posterior semicircular canal

c. Anterior semicircular canal

d. Superior semicircular canal

68. Referred pain in the ear is commonly from:

a. Mandibular cancer

b. Carcinoma of tongue

c. Nasopharyngeal cancer

d. Maxillary carcinoma

69. Trotter’s triad consists of all of the following except:

a. Palatal paralysis

b. Trigeminal neuralgia

c. Sensorineural deafness

d. Conduction deafness

70. Which of the following is the most prominent symptom of acoustic neuroma?

a. Ataxic gait

b. Diplopia

c. Sensorineural hearing loss

d. Parasthesia

71. Which of the following is not a feature of adenoid hypertrophy:

a. Dull expression

b. Open mouth

c. Pinched up nose

d. Crowding of lower tooth

72. Adenoidectomy is contraindicated in:

a. Glue ear

b. Recurrent rhinosinusitis

c. Mouth breathing

d. Cleft palate

73. All of the following are the indications of adenoidectomy except:

a. Obstructive sleep apnea

b. Allergic rhinitis

c. Recurrent ASOM

d. Prior to orthodontic treatment

74. Adenoidectomy with Grommert insertion is treatment of choice for:

a. Serous otitis media in adults

b. Serous otitis media in children

c. Adenoiditis in children

d. Otitis interna in children



75. A 5 years old child presents to your clinic with complaint of recurrent respiratory tract infection. Mother complains about this recurrent infection, mouth breathing and decreased hearing. Treatment of choice for this condition is:

a. Myringoplasty

b. Adenoidectomy

c. Grommet insertion

d. Myringotomy

76. Graft used for tympanoplasty:

a. Antral fascia

b. Temporalis fascia

c. Pre-auricular fascia

d. post–auricular fascia

77. Electrode of cochlear implant is passed via:

a. Round window

b. Oval window

c. Lateral semicircular canal

d. Around the auditory nerve

NOSE AND PARANASAL SINUSES

78. Sphenoid sinus opens into:

a. Superior meatus

b. Middle meatus

c. Inferior meatus

d. Supreme meatus

79. Location of nasolacrimal duct:

a. Inferior meatus

b. Superior meatus

c. Sphenoethmoidal recess

d. Middle meatus

80. Nasolacrimal duct opens into:

a. Mouth opposite to 2nd molar

b. Middle meatus of the nose

c. Superior meatus of the nose

d. Inferior meatus of the nose

81. Antrochoanal polyp opens in which meatus:

a. Middle meatus

b. Superior meatus

c. Inferior meatus

d. Sphenoethmoidal recess

82. What is the likely source of infection for pus from sphenoethmoidal recess?

a. Sphenoid sinus

b. Ethmoidal sinus

c. Maxillary sinus

d. Frontal sinus

83. Which sinus opens in inferior meatus:

a. Lacrimal

b. Frontal sinus

c. Anterior ethmoidal sinus

d. None

84. Kiesselbach’s area does not involve:

a. Superior labial artery

b. Anterior ethmoidal artery

c. Greater palatine artery

d. Posterior ethmoidal artery

85. Which of the following vessel of Little’s area is not a branch of external carotid artery?

a. Sphenopalatine artery

b. Anterior ethmoidal artery

c. Greater palatine artery

d. Posterior ethmoidal artery

86. Which of the following is not an etiologically derived cause for epistaxis:

a. Nose picking

b. Intra nasal tumours

c. Vascular disorders or blood dyscrasias

d. Hereditary hemorrhagic

87. Esthesioneuroblastoma arises from:

a. Olfactory epithelium

b. Ethmoid sinus

c. Maxillary sinus

d. Sphenoid sinus

88. All of the following paranasal sinuses are present at birth except:

a. Maxillary sinus

b. Ethmoid sinus

c. Sphenoid sinus

d. None

89. Sinus absent at the birth:

a. Maxillary sinus

b. Ethmoidal sinus

c. Frontal sinus

d. Temporal sinus

90. Radiological evidence of frontal sinus can be seen at:

a. 2 years

b. 4 years

c. 6 years

d. 8 years

91. Sphenoid sinus reaches adult size at:

a. 5 years

b. 10 years

c. 15 years

d. 28 years

92. Frontal sinus reaches adult size at:

a. 5 years

b. 8 years

c. 10 years

d. 12 years

93. Largest sinus:

a. Frontal sinus

b. Maxillary sinus

c. Ethmoidal sinus

d. Sphenoid sinus

94. Caldwell luc’s operation is done for:

a. Frontal sinusitis

b. Maxillary sinusitis

c. Ethmoidal sinusitis

d. Sphenoid sinusitis

95. Young’s operation is done for:

a. Atrophic rhinitis

b. Vasomotor rhinitis

c. Antro-choanal polyp

d. Allergic rhinitis

96. Which one of the following is a case of nasal obstruction in atrophic rhinitis:

a. Secretions

b. Deviated nasal septum

c. Polyp


d. Crusting

97. Which of the following is the most common presentation of nasopharyngeal carcinoma:

a. Epistaxis

b. Lymphadenopathy

c. Nasal obstruction

d. Apnea

98. Miculicz and Russel body upon biopsy is seen in:

a. Rhinophyma

b. Rhinoscleroma

c. Rhinosporidiosis

d. Rhinolith

99. Rhinophyma is associated with which of the following:

a. Hypertrophy or sebaceous gland

b. Infection of hear follicles

c. Congenital deformity of the nose

d. Hypertrophy of sweat gland

100. Cause of rhinosporidiosis:

a. Bacterial

b. Viral

c. Fungal

d. Protozoa

101. A patient presents to you with big nasal cavity, thick crust formation and woody hard external nose. What is the probable diagnosis:

a. Vasomotor rhinithis

b. Rhinoscleroma

c. Rhinosporidiosis

d. Atrophic rhinitis

102. Woody induration of rhinoscleroma is initially seen at which stage:

a. Catarrhal stage

b. Strophic stage

c. Granulomatous stage

d. Cicatricial stage

103. Rhinoscleroma is caused by:

a. Virus


b. Bacteria

c. Fungus

d. Anaerobes

104. Most common fractured bone on face:

a. Nasoethmoid bone

b. Zygomatic bone

c. Nasal bone

d. Mandible

105. Chevallet fracture of nasal septum is:

a. Horizontal fracture

b. Vertical fracture

c. Communited fracture

d. Serpentine fracture

106. Impact of force in case of jarjavay septal fracture is from:

a. Above


b. Below

c. Front


d. Behind

107. Most common site of fracture of mandible is:

a. Neck of condyle

b. Angle of mandible

c. Symphysis

d. Ramus

THROAT / PHARYNX

108. Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is most commonly seen in:

a. Elderly males

b. Females

c. Young males

d. Infants

109. A 13 years old child presents 3 year history of gradual swelling of maxilla with medial displacement of turbinateswith mild proptosis. What is the most likely diagnosis:

a. Olfactory neuroblastoma

b. Angiofibroma

c. Carcinoma of maxilla

d. Fibrous dysplasia

110. Crypts are seen in

a. Tonsils

b. Adenoids

c. Lymph nodes

d. Parotids

111. Mallampati score is done for assessing:

a. Size of the airway

b. Oral cavity of patient for intubation

c. Mobility of neck

d. Size of ET tube

112. Which of the following muscle is not supplied by recurrent laryngeal nerve:

a. Cricothyroid

b. Lateral cricoarytenoid

c. Thyroarytenoid

d. Posterior cricoarytenoid

113. Which one of the following is an abductor of vocal cords:

a. Posterior cricoarytenoid

b. Transverse arytenoids

c. Cricothyroid

d. Aryepiglotticus

114. Recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies all except:

a. Cricothyroid

b. Thyroarytenoid

c. Lateral cricoarytenoid

d. Posterior cricoarytenoid

115. Warthins tumor is seen in:

a. Submandibular gland

b. Parotid gland

c. Sublingual gland

d. All of the above

116. Glossopharyngeal nerve supplies:

a. Glossopharyngeal muscle

b. Stylopharyngeus muscle

c. Anterior 2/3 of the tongue

d. All of the above

117. Omega shaped epiglottis is seen in:

a. Epiglottitis

b. Laryngomalacia

c. Epiglottis CA

d. Tuberculosis

118. Thumb sign is seen in:

a. Acute laryngitis

b. Acute epiglottitis

c. Acute laryngo trachea bronchitis

d. Acute tonsillitis

119. Bezold’s abscess is in relation to:

a. Digastric muscle

b. Sternocleidomastoid muscle

c. Behind the mastoid

d. Submandibular region

120. Which of the following sites represents the location of Bezold abscess?

a. Diagastric triangle

b. Sternocleidomastoid muscle

c. Infra temporal region

d. Sub mandibular region

121. All are the complications of tonsillitis except:

a. Otitis media

b. Abscess

c. Malignant change

d. Subacute bacterial endocarditis

122. Which of the following cyst doesn’t move upon deglutition

a. Ranula

b. Thyroglossal cyst

c. Sublingual dermoid cyst

d. Thymic cyst

123. In the early stage of which of the following carcinoma no lymphatics involved:

a. Glottic CA

b. Infraglottic CA

c. Supraglottic CA

d. Hypopharyngeal CA

124. Radiation therapy is mostly useful for:

a. Glottis CA

b. Epiglottis CA

c. Sub-glottis CA

d. Supraglottis CA

125. Hot potato voice is seen in all except?

a. Quinsy

b. Carcinoma tongue

c. Carcinoma tonsil

d. Streptococcus pharyngitis

126. Transillumination test is positive in:

a. Branchial cyst

b. Thymic cyst

c. Ranula

d. Thyroglossal duct cyst

127. Male patient with female like voice. This condition is called:

a. Puberphonia

b. Androphonia

c. Rhinolalia aperta

d. Rhinolalia clausa

128. Female patient with male like voice. Type of thyroplasty done:

a. I


b. II

c. III


d. IV

129. In a patient with vocal cord paralysis, the surgeon is afraid of aspiration. Thyroplasty done in order to prevent aspiration:

a. Type I

b. Type II

c. Type III

d. Type IV

130. Most common complication of tracheostomy:

a. Hemorrhage

b. Tracheal stenosis

c. Recurrent laryngeal nerve damage

d. Infection

BOARD REVIEW QUESTIONS

131. Dysphagia lusoria is caused by?

a. Abdominal aorta

b. Thoracic aorta

c. Aberrant right subclavian artery

d. None of the above

132. Glomus jugular are seen in?

a. Hypothympanum

b. Promontory

c. Epithympanum

d. None of these

133. Endolymphatic sac decompression is treatment for?

a. Meniere’s disease

b. Facial nerve injury

c. Otosclerosis

d. Otitis media

134. A pregnant lady comes to ENT OPD with hearing loss, tinnitus and soft spoken voice. Most probable diagnosis is?

a. Otosclerosis

b. Meniere’s disease

c. Retrocochlear hearing loss

d. Malingering

135. A patient on ATT develops tinnitus and hearing loss due to?

1. Isoniazis

b. Pyrazinamide

c. Streptomycin

d. Rifampicin

136. Most superior sinus in the face is?

a. Frontal sinus

b. Ethmoid sinus

c. Maxillary sinus

d. Sphenoid sinus

137. Most common fractured bone in the face is?

a. Nasal


b. Malar

c. Zygomatic

d. Temporal

138. Where is electrode kept in cochlear implant?

a. Round window

b. Oval window

c. Scala vestibule

d. Scala tympany

139. Otosclerosis shows which kind of tympanogram?

a. Low compliance

b. High compliance

c. Normal compliance

d. No effect on compliance

140. Bony septal nasal perforation is seen in?

a. Tuberculosis

b. Syphilis

c. Leprosy

d. Rhinosporidiosis

141. Foramen of Huschkle is present in:

a. Bony part of external auditory canal

b. Cartilaginous part of external auditory canal

c. Middle ear anterior wall

d. Middle ear posterior wall

142. “Dilator tubae” muscle is a portion of:

a. Tensor tympani

b. Levator veli palatine

c. Tensor veli palatine

d. Salpingopharyngeus

143. Ostmann’s pad of fat is related to:

a. Ear lobule

b. Opening of Eustachean tube

c. Closing of Eustache :

a. Glomus tumor

b. Facial nerve paralysis

c. Otosclerosis

d. Cholesteatoma



146. Most common tumor of ear:

a. Squamous cell CA

b. Basal cell CA

c. Glomus tumor

d. Acoustic neuroma

147. A female patient is having male like voice. Thyroplasty of choice:

a. Type 1

b. Type 2

c. Type 3

d. Type 4

148. In the early stage of which of the following carcinoma, no lymphatics are involved:

a. Glottic CA

b. Infraglottic CA

c. Supraglottic CA

d. Hypopharyngeal CA

149. Otalgia in tonsillitis. Nerve involved:

a. Glossopharyngeal nerve

b. Trigeminal nerve

c. Facial nerve

d. Vagus nerve

150. Which is most effective in glue ear:

a. Antibiotics

b. Nasal decongestants

c. Steroids

d. Tympanoplasty

151. Malignant otitis externa is a

a. Autoimmune condition

b. Pre-malignant condition

c. Malignant condition

d. Infective condition

152. Brown sign is seen in:

a. Glomus tumor

b. Meniere’s disease

c. Acoustic neuroma

d. Otosclerosis

153. Toynbee’s muscle is

a. Stapedius

b. Tensor tympani

c. Scalenusminimus

d. Levatorani

154. Rhinosporidiosis is caused by

a. Protozoal infection

b. Viral infection

c. Bacterial infection

d. Fungal infection

155. First branch of the facial nerve is:

a. Greater petrosal nerve

b. Lesser petrosal nerve

c. Chorda-tympani nerve

d. Nerve to the stapedius

156. The pressure difference that can cause atmosphere and middle ear barotraumas is:

a. 60 mmHg

b. 60-70 mm Hg

c. 70-80 mmHg

d. >90 mmHg

157. Common age for otosclerosis is:

a. 5-10 years

b. 10-20 years

c. 20-30 years

d. 30-45 years

158. Earliest symptom of glomus tumor is:

a. Pulsatile tinnitus

b. Deafness

c. Headache

d. Vertigo

159. Stapedius muscle is supplied by:

a. 5th nerve

b. 6th nerve

c. 7th nerve

d. 8th nerve

160. Trench mouth is:

a. Sub mucosal fibrosis

b. Tumor at uveal angle

c. Ulcerative lesion of the tonsil

d. Retention cyst of the tonsil

161. A diabetic patient presents with black necrotic mass filling the nasal cavity. Most likely fungal infection is:

a. Rhinosporidiosis

b. Aspergillosis

c. Mucormycosis

d. Candidiasis

162. Nasal perforation in bony part is seen in

a. Syphilis

b. Tuberculosis

c. Wegner’s granuloma

d. Allergic rhinitis

163. Carhart’s notch is seen in

a. Otosclerosis

b. Acoustic neuroma

c. Meniere’s disease

d. CSOM

164. Only abductor of the vocal cord is

a. Lateral cricoarytenoid

b. Posterior cricoarytenoid

c. Cricothyroid

d. Thyroarytenoid

165. The most common location of vocal nodules is

a. Junction of the ant: 1/3 and posterior 2/3

b. Junction of the ant: 2/3 and posterior 1/3

c. Junction of the posterior ¼ and ant: 2/3

d. Anterior commissure

166. Caldwell luc operation is done in:

a. Maxillary sinusitis

b. Ethmoidal sinusitis

c. Sphenoidal sinusitis

d. Frontal sinusitis

167. Steeple sign on AP radiograph is seen in

a. Laryngo trachea bronchitis

b. Epiglottidis

c. Retrobulbar abscess

d. Laryngeal diphtheria

168. Mastoid tip is involved in:

a. Bezold abscess

b. Luc’s abscess

c. Citelli’s abscess

d. Parapharyngeal abscess

169. Most common organism causing CSOM:

a. Moraxella catarrhalis

b. Hemophilus influenza

c. Streptococcus pneumonia

d. Pseudomonas

170. Recurrent polyp are seen in:

a. Antrochoanal polyp

b. Ethmoidal polyp

c. Nasal polyp

d. Hypertrophic turbinate

171. Acute tonsillitis is caused by

a. H. influenza

b. Beta-hemolytic streptococcus

c. Staphylococcus aureus

d. Pneumococcus

172. A 17 year male presented with swelling in the cheek with recurrent epistaxis. Most likely diagnosis:

a. Angiofibroma

b. Carcinoma nasopharynx

c. Rhabdomyosarcoma

d. Ethmyoid polyp

173. Oro-antral fistula is seen most commonly in

a. Dental extraction

b. Carcinoma maxilla

c. Mucocele of the maxilla

d. Fracture of the maxilla

174. Most common intracranial complication of CSOM:

a. Lateral sinus thrombosis

b. Meningitis

c. Temporal lobe abscess

d. Orbital cellulitis

175. Mikulicz cell is seen in:

a. Rhinoscleroma

b. Rhinosporidiosis

c. Aspergillosis

d. TB

176. Reactoinary hemorrhage occurs within:

a. 24 hours

b. 48 hours

c. 72 hours

d. 5 days

177. Bill’s bar divides:

a. Facial nerve and cochlear nerve

b. Facial nerve and superior vestibular nerve

c. Facial nerve and inferior vestibular cochlear nerve

d. Superior and inferior vestibular cochlear nerve

178. Most common type of hearing loss in TB otitis media:

a. Conductive hearing loss

b. SNHL

c. Presbycusis



d. Hyperacusis

179. Antrochoanal polyp opens in which meatus:

a. Middle meatus

b. Superior meatus

c. Inferior meatus

d. Sphenoethmoidal recess

180. Young’s operation is done for:

a. Atrophic rhinitis

b. Vasomotor rhinitis

c. Antro-choanal polyp

d. Allergic rhinitis

181. Degree of Eustachian tube from horizontal line is:

a. 35 degree

b. 45 degree

c. 55 degree

d. 65 degree

182. Space of Tucker is seen in?

a. Larynx

b. Oesophagus

c. Femoral canal

d. Laparoscopic approach to hernia

183. Which of the following syndrome is associated with anosmia?

a. Kallmann’s syndrome

b. Turner’s syndrome

c. Down’s syndrome

d. Klinefelter’s syndrome

184. Bryce’s sign is seen in?

a. Laryngocele

b. Post cricoid carcinoma

c. Angiofibroma

d. Chronic tonsillitis

185. Isthmus of thyroid corresponds to which tracheal rings?

a. 1-3


b. 2-4

c. 4-6


d. 6-8

186. A patient presents with diplopia, fever, and ear discharge. The most probable diagnosis is?

a. CSOM


b. Meningitis

c. Lateral sinus thrombosis

d. Petrositis

187. Ground glass appearance of maxillary sinus is seen in?

a. Maxillary sinusitis

b. Maxillary carcinoma

c. Maxillary polyp

d. Maxillary fibrous dysplasia

188. Mucocele is commenest in which among the following sinuses?

a. Frontal

b. Maxillary

c. Ethmoid

d. Sphenoid

189. Schuller’s view and law’s view is for?

a. Sphenoid sinus

b. Mastoid air cells

c. Foramen ovale spinosum

d. Carotid canal

190. Most common nerve damage in maxillary fracture?

a. Supra orbital nerve

b. Infra orbital nerve

c. Facial nerve

d. Lingual nerve

191. SADE’s classification is used for?

a. Cholesteatoma

b. Pars flaccida

c. Pars tensa

d. ASOM

192. Who described Meniere’s disease first?

a. Arthur Toynbee

b. Valsalva

c. Prosper Menier

d. Mac Ewan

193. Cochlear aqueduct connects?

a. Middle ear to subarachnoid space

b. Inner ear to middle ear

c. Inner ear to subarachnoid space

d. Inner ear to nasal cavity

194. Mouse nibbled appearance of vocal cord is seen in?

a. Vocal cord palsy

b. Vocal nodules

c. Larynx Ca

d. TB Larynx

195. Gutzmann pressure test is done for?

a. Laryngomalacia

b. Puberphonia

c. Laryngeal polyps

d. Vocal cord palsy

196. Inability to vocalise in?

a. Aphonia

b. Mutism

c. Alogia

d. Dysarthria

197. Otolith organs are concerned with function of?

a. Vestibular reflex

b. Position sense

c. Linear acceleration

d. Angular acceleration

198. Frequency range in normal human hearing is?

a. 20-4000 Hz

b. 20-8000 Hz

c. 20-10000 Hz

d. 20-20000 Hz

199. As per factory act in India maximum audible tolerance is?

a. 90 dB for 6 hours

b. 90 dB for 8 hours

c. 85 dB for 6 hours

85 dB for 8 hours

200. Imaging study of choice for para nasal sinuses is?

a. USG


b. CT scan

c. X ray PNS

d. FDG PET scan

201. Semicircular canal perceives?

a. Linear acceleration

b. Angular acceleration

c. Both


d. None

202. Most common site of carcinoma of para nasal sinus is?

a. Frontal

b. Ethmoid

c. Maxillary

d. Sphenoid

203. Most common cause of acute otitis media in children is?

a. Staphylococcus aureus

b. Streptococcus pneumonia

c. Haemophilus influenza

d. Moraxella catarrhalis

204. Treatment of choice of nasopharyngeal carcinoma is?

a. Surgery

b. Chemotherapy

c. Radiotherapy

d. Chemoradiation

205. Location of adenoids on pharyngeal wall is?

a. Superiorly

b. Laterally

c. Inferiorly

d. Posteriorly

206. Otosclerosis presents with?

a. Conductive deafness

b. Sensorineural deafness

c. Mixed hearing loss

d. Fluctuating hearing loss

207. Most common part affected in otosclerosis is?

a. Anterior part of foot plate of stapes

b. Posterior part of foot plate of stapes

c. Middle part of foot plate of stapes

d. Annular ligament of stapes

208. Rhinitis sicca is characterised by?

a. Drying of anterior 1/3 rd of the nasal cavity

b. Drying of middle 1/3 rd of the nasal cavity

c. Drying of the posterior 1/3 rd of the nasal cavity

d. Drying of the nasal septum

209. Vidian neurectomy is done in?

a. Allergic rhinitis

b. Vasomotor rhinitis

c. Atrophic rhinitis

d. Rhinitis medicamentosa

210. Crooked nose is due to?

a. Deviated ala

b. Deviated septum

c. Hump in nasal septum

d. Deviated dorsum and septum

211. A 21 year old college student presents with hot potato voice and trismus. Throat examination was done. The probably diagnosis is?

a. Quinsy

b. Epiglottitis

c. Infectious mononucleosis

d. Chronic tonsillitis

ANSWERS

1. c


2. b

3. d


4. a

5. a


6. c

7. a


8. c

9. d


10. d

11. b


12. a

13. d


14. d

15. c


16. d

17. a


18. c

19. b


20. c

21. c


22. d

23. c


24. d

25. b


26. c

27. b


28. a

29. b


30. b

31. b


32. c

33. c


34. b

35. c


36. d

37. c


38. b

39. a


40. b

41. a


42. a

43. c


44. c

45. b


46. a

47. a


48. c

49. b


50. d

51. a


52. c

53. a


54. b

55. a


56. b

57. a


58. b

59. a


60. a

61. c


62. a

63. c


64. b

65. c


66. c

67. b


68. b

69. c


70. c

71. d


72. d

73. b


74. b

75. b


76. b

77. a


78. d

79. a


80. a

81. a


82. a

83. d


84. d

85. c


86. d

87. a


88. c

89. c


90. c

91. c


92. d

93. b


94. b

95. a


96. d

97. b


98. b

99. a


100. c

101. b


102. c

103. b


104. c

105. b


106. c

107. a


108. c

109. b


110. a

111. b


112. a

113. a


114. a

115. b


116. b

117. b


118. b

119. b


120. b

121. c


122. c

123. a


124. b

125. b


126. c

127. a


128. d

129. a


130. a

131. c


132. a

133. a


134. a

135. c


136. a

137. a


138. d

139. a


140. b

141. a


142. c

143. c


144. d

145. c


146. a

147. d


148. a

149. a


150. b

151. d


152. a

153. b


154. d

155. a


156. d

157. c


158. a

159. c


160. c

161. c


162. a

163. a


164. b

165. a


166. a

167. a


168. a

169. d


170. b

171. b


172. a

173. a


174. b

175. a


176. a

177. b


178. a

179. a


180. a

181. b


182. a

183. a


184. a

185. b


186. d

187. d


188. a

189. b


190. b

191. c


192. c

193. c


194. d

195. b


196. a

197. c


198. d

199. b


200. b

201. b


202. c

203. b


204. c

205. b


206. a

207. a


208. a

209. b


210. d

211. a


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