Aipg 2006 (dental)

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1. All of the following are correct with regard to acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, except:
1. There is necrosis of the interdental papillae.

2. Sloughing of the necrotic tissue presents as a pseudo membrane over the tissues.

3. It is associated with decreased resistance to infection.

4. It causes chronic inflammation of the gingival.

2. Which one of the following is the cause of dilacerations?
1. Trauma to the tooth germ during root development.

2. Abnormal displacement of tooth germ during root development.

3. Abnormal proliferation of enamel epithelium during tooth development.

4. Abnormal displacement of Ameloblasts during tooth formation.

3. The most common site of occurrence of lateral periodontal cyst is-
1. Between the mandibular cuspid and first premolar.

2. Maxillary tuberosity area.

3. Between the maxillary premolars.

4. Mandibular third molar area.

4. In the taurodontism, the teeth exhibit:
1. Elongated, large pulp chambers and short roots.

2. Elongated, small pulp chambers and short roots.

3. Elongated, small pulp chambers and large roots.

4. Short, small pulp chambers and large roots.

5. Which one of the junction of the frontal, parietal, temporal and greater wing of sphenoid?
1. Lambda.

2. Inion.

3. Pterion.

4. Vertex.

6. Which of the following statements is true regarding lathe cut silver alloy?
1. Requires least amount of mercury.

2. Achieves lowest compressive strength at 1 hr.

3. Has tensile strength, both at 15 minutes and 7 days is comparable to high copper, unicompositional alloys.

4. Has lower creep value

7. Corrosion of amalgam restoration: -
1. Can extend upto a depth of 100-500 µm.

2. Decreases if tin content of alloy increases.

3. Is promoted by gama phase of alloy particles.

4. Is resisted the most by copper-tin phase in high copper amalgams.

8. Over-trituration of silver alloy and mercury:
1. Reduces contraction.

2. Increases the strength of lathe-cut alloy but reduces the strength of spherical alloy amalgam.

3. Decreases creep.

4. Gives a dull and crumbly amalgam mix.

9. Which of the following is true about Agar hydrocolloid impression material?
1. Liquefies between 71-100°C

2. Solidifies between 50-70°C

3. Facilitates fabrication of metal dyes

4. Can not register fine surface details

10. Which of the following is not true about elastomeric impression?
1. Single mix materials have higher viscosity

2. Shear thinning is related to viscosity of mono phase impression material

3. Improper mixing of material can cause permanent deformation of impression

4. Putty-wash technique of impression reduces dimensional change on setting

11. Apoptosis is suggestive of:
1. Liquefaction degeneration

2. Coagulation necrosis

3. Neoangiogenesis

4. Epithelial dysplasia

12. Pemphigus vulgaris is characterized by:
1. Acanthosis

2. Acantholysis

3. Auspitz’s sign

4. Wickham’s striae

13. Which one of the following is oral precancer?

1. Oral hairy leukoplakia

2. While spongy nevus

3. Hairy B cell leukemia

4. Speckeled leukoplakia

14 The important microorganism for dentinal caries is
1. Actinomyosis Actinobacillus

2. Borrelia vincentii

3. Streptococcus mutans

4. Streptococcus viridans

15. Radiographically snow driven appearance suggests:
1. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumour

2. Calcifying odontogenic cyst

3. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumour

4. Keratocyst

16. Which of the following is not responsible for endogenous staining of teeth during development?
1. Tetracycline

2. Rh incompatibility

3. Neonatal liver disease

4. Vitamin C deficiency

17. If incidence = 50 cases/1000 population/year and mean duration of disease 5 years, then prevalence would be:
1. 10

2. 250

3. 1/10

4. 1/250
18 Regarding case control study all the following are correct, except:

1. Risk factors can be identified

2. It measures incidence

3. Used in the study of rare diseases

4. Required few subjects

19. In adults, the spinal cord normally ends at:.
1. Lower border of L1

2. Lower border of L3

3. Lower border of SI

4. Lower border of L5

20. Iron is present in all of the following EXCEPT;
1. Myoglobin

2. Cytochrome

3. Catalase

4. Pyruvate Kinase

21. Break point chlorination means
1. Start of chlorination process

2. End of chlorination process

3. When free residual chlorine starts appearing

4. After partial saturation of water with chlorine

22. Square root of pg/n indicates:
1. Standard error of mean

2. Standard error of difference of means

3. Standard error of proportions

4. Standard error of difference in proportions

23. In health education program, a group of 10 people are planning to speak on a topic of common interest. Which one of following is best educational approach?
1. Panel discussion

2. Symposium

3. Group discussion

4. Workshop

24. The National AIDS Control Program has the following components, EXCEPT:
1. Sero Surveillance

2. Health Education & Information

3. Screening of blood and blood products

4. Banning of sexual contact with foreigners

25. Which of the following is used as a thickening agent in dentifrices?
1. Calcium carbonate, calcium phosphate and Calcium Sulphate

2. Sodium bicarbonate, aluminum oxide

3. Sodium lauryl sulplate and sodium lauryl Succinate

4. Carboxymethyl cellulose, alginate amylase

26. Which of the following techniques would be the best preventive measure for dental caries?
1. Elimination of sugars from the diet

2. Reduce frequency of intake of cariogenic food stuffs

3. Rinse and swish with water after each meal

4. Substitution of alcohol — based sugar for sucrose

27. Which of the following factors in the Stephan’s curve is related to the caries incidence and sugar intake?

1. Physical form of sugar

2. Frequency of sugar intake

3. pH of plaque

4. Quantity of sugar intake

28 The prevalence of dental caries in a community in the year 2000 and 200 was 11% and 38% respectively the incidence of caries of the same population in three years would be
1. 38%

2. 20%

3. 10%

4. 56%
29. The mean DMFT values for 12 year old school children is 2/5. 68% of the population has DMFT values 2 and 3. The standard deviation for the population is:

1. 0.5

2. 1

3. 2

4. 3
30. An example for primary prevention of dental diseases is:

1. Scaling & polishing and filling.

2. Extractions, RCT and periodontal

3. Wearing gloves and sterilization of the instruments

4. Replacements of lost teeth and orthodontic treatment

  1. To transfer the axis orbital plane we require:

    1. Arbitrary face – bow

    2. Kinemetic face –bow

    3. Either arbitrary or kinemetic face – bow

    4. An Ear bow only

32. To replace a missing canine, the best pontic design is:

1. Modified ridge lap

2. Ridge lap

3. Ovoid

4. Sanitary

33. Impression material of choice in patients with submucous fibrosis is:
1. Zinc oxide eugenol

2. Addition silicon

3. Condensation silicon

4. Plaster of Paris

34. The correctly placed posterior palatal seal creates
1. Vacuum in posterior part of palate

2. Vacuum beneath the maxillary denture

3. Partial vacuum beneath the maxillary denture

4. A close adaptation of maxillary denture at tuberosity

35. Anterior vibrating line is located on:
1. Soft palatal tissue

2. Hard palatal tissue

3. Either on soft or hard palatal tissue

4. Posterior to fovea palatini

36. A edentulous patient has a complaint that his denture becomes loose several hours after wearing, this indicates:
1. An improper extension of denture base

2. A deflective occlusal contacts

3. A high vertical dimension

4. An over extended denture flanges

37. The most suitable margin design for porcelain crown is:
1. Shoulder

2. Chamfer

3. Shoulder with bevel

4. Depends upon operators choice

38. All ceramic crowns are not indicated for young children because of:
1. Short clinical crown height

2. Root formation is not completed

3. Pulp horns are wide and high

4. Maintenance of oral hygiene is difficult

39 For a balanced occlusion when condylar inclination is increased the compensating curve should be
1. Shallow

2. Decreased and flat

3. Increased and prominent

4. Reversed

40. Only pure hinge movements of the mandible occur at:
1. Centric occlusion

2. Centric relation

3. Lateral excursion

4. Terminal Hinge Position

41. Tissue reaction that is common due to overextension of labial flanges of complete denture is:
1. Epulis Granuloma

2. Epulis Fissuratum

3. Papillary Hyperplasia

4. Pyogenic Granuloma

42. Beading of the rigid major connector is done to:
1. Increase the rigidity

2. Produce a positive contact with the tissue

3. Increase the retention of RPD

4. Improve the esthetics

43 The first step in major connector construction is
1. Design of stress bearing area

2. Design to non stress bearing area

3. Making the outline of the strap line

4. Selection of the strap type

44. The first step in surveying the cast for Removable Partial Denture is:
1. Establishment of guiding plane

2. Establishment of undercuts for retention

3. Establishment of tooth contour for esthetics

4. Establishment of interference for major connector

45. The terminal end of retentive arm of extra coronal retainer is placed at:
1. Gingival third

2. Occlusal third

3. Middle third

4. Junction of middle and gingival third

46. The resistance form is that shape of cavity which:
1. Prevents displacement of restoration

2. Permits the restorations of withstand occlusal forces

3. Allows adequate instrumentation

4. Allows the restoration to withstand occlusal forces and prevent displacement

47. Gutta Percha can effectively be sterilized by
1. Hot salt sterilizer

2. Chemical solutions

3. Autoclaving

4. Dry Heat

48. The most important aspect of emergency treatment for an acute apical abscess is to:
1. Produce sedation

2. Establish drainage

3. Maintain obturations

4. Adjust the occlusion

49. A polyp may arise in connection
1. Chronic open pulpitis

2. Pulp necrosis

3. Acute pulpitis

4. A chronic periapical lesion

  1. Beveling the pulpoaxial line angle of a class II cavity is done to:

    1. Increase the strength of the restoration

    2. Improved marginal adaptation

    3. To prevent the fracture of enamel

    4. To prevent the fractures of amalgam

51. Which one of the following is used to bleach a discovered, endodontically treated tooth?

1. Ether

2. Chloroform

3. Superoxol

4. Sodium hypochlorite

52. The primary function of access openings is to:
1. Facilitate canal medication

2. Provide good access for irrigation

3. Aid in locating canal orifices

4. Provide straight line access to the apex

53. A cold test best localizes
1. Pain of pulpal origin

2. Pulp necrosis

3. Periodontal pain

4. Referred pain

54 Calcification of pulp
1. Is in response to ageing

2. Does not relate to the periodontal condition

3. Precedes internal resorption

4. Indicates presence of additional canal

55. How soon after contamination by moisture does zinc containing amalgam restoration start expanding?
1. 12 hours

2. 1-2 days

3. 3-5 days

4. One week

56. Creep value of which of the following is the highest?
1. Low copper amalgam alloy

2. Admix alloy

3. Single composition alloys

4. Creep value of all the-mentioned alloys is same

57. Which of the following cements bonds to tooth structure, which has an anticariogenic effect, has a degree of translucency and does not irritate the pulp?
1. Polycarboxylate cement

2. Resin cement

3. Silicate cement

4. Glass lonomer cement

58. The microorganism causing smooth surface dental caries is:
1. Streptococcus viridians

2. Streptococcus mutans

3. Streptococcus salivarius

4. Lactobacillus

59 Electric pulp tests may not be performed on patients who have
1. Hip Implant

2. Pace maker

3. Dental Implant

4. Prosthetic eye

60. Instrument that has a 4-digit formula
1. Angle former

2. Hoe

3. Hatchet

4. Spoon excavator

61. The distance between 2 holes in a rubber dam sheet is ideally:
1. 6mm

2. 6.3mm

3. 6.5mm

4. 5.9mm

62. For root canal therapy of maxillary canine (Distal caries), the isolation done is:
1. 2nd Premolar to opposite lateral incisor

2. 1st molar to opposite lateral incisor

3. Adjacent 2 teeth of both the sides

4. Not required, only the tooth to be treated

63. How much fraction of methyl mercury is absorbed from the gut?
1. 20%

2. 50%

3. 80%

4. 100%
64. What fraction of inhaled mercury vapor is retained in the body?

1. 45-55%

2. 55-65%

3. 65-85%

4. >85%
65 The lowest blood mercury level at which the earliest non specific symptom starts appearing at

1. 25 ng/ml

2. 35 ng/ml

3. 40 ng/ml

4. 45 nglml

66 In which condition papilla preservation flap is indicated
1. lnfrabony defects

2. One walled defects

3. Horizontal bone loss in upper anterior teeth

4. Crater types of bony defect

67. Which one of the following is the role of barrier membrane in GTR?
1. To help overall healing

2. Prevention of epithelial migration

3. To stop bleeding

4. To prevent the underlying tissues from the infection

68. Avulsed tooth may be stored in saliva for upto:
1. 2 hours

2. 3 hours

3. 4 hours

4. Indefinitely

69. The most used selective medium for Streptococcus Mutans is:
1. Mac Conkey medium

2. Mitis Salivarius Bacitracin Agar

3. Nutrient Agar

4. Tellurite medium

70 The patient pulpotomy technique was advocated by
1. Bowen in 1974

2. Clarke

3. Cvek in 1978

4. WilIetin 1980

71 Distal Shoe was first advocated by whom in t929?
1. Wilson

2. Willet

3. Wilhem

4. Roche
72. The bioflims found on tooth surfaces are termed as:

1. Enamel

2. Dental Caries

3. Dental plaque

4. Saliva

73. Incipient or recurrent caries can be detected before they are visible on the radiograph by:
1. Visible light

2. Ultrasonic light

3. Fibreoptic transillumination

4. Digital Imaging fibreoptic transillurnination

74. Stainless steel crowns are contraindicated in:
1. Medically compromised patient (VSD, ASO)

2. After endodontic therapy

3. Rampant caries

4. Amelogenesis Imperfecta

75 The first community water fluoridation was carried out in
1. 1945, Colorado

2. 1945, Grand Rapids

3. 1945, Oak Park

4. 1045, Evanston

76 The most common reason for the removal of impacted mandibular third molars
1. Referred pain

2. Orthodontic treatment

3. Recurrent pericoronitis

4. Chronic periodontal disease

77. The antibiotic cover is mandatory before extraction in the following condition of the heart:
1. Ischemic heart disease (IHD)

2. Hypertension

3. Congestive cardiac failure

4. Congenital heart disease

78. Blue sclera is characteristic of:
1. Amelogenesis imperfecta

2. Tetracycline hypoplasia

3. Fluorosis

4. Osteogenesis imperfecta

79 A specimen for a biopsy should be taken from
1. Necrotic area

2. Subdermal layer

3. Border of an ulcerated area

4. Centre of an ulcerated area

80. Pencillin exerts its effect on bacteria by interfering with:
1. Cellular respiration

2. Cellular oxidation

3. Cell wall synthesis

4. Cellular division

81. Bence Jones protein found in the urine may be suggestive of:
1. Hyperparathyroidim

2. Hodgkins disease

3. Multiple myeloma

4. Christian’s syndrome

82. The syndrome which is associated with predisposition to the development of carcinoma of oral mucous membrane is:
1. Gardner’s syndrome

2. Oster — Rendu — Weber syndrome

3. Sturge — Weber syndrome

4. Plummer — Vinson syndrome

83 Anterior open bite occurs in fracture of
1. Symphysis

2. Bilateral angles

3. Bilateral condyles

4. Unilaterat condyle

84 Zygomatic arch fractures are best seen in
1. Submentovertex view

2. Occipitomental view

3. Lateral view of skull

4. Postero - anterior view of skull

85. Bilateral subconjunctival ecchymosis is not associated with:
1. Le-Fort II fracture

2. Le-Fort III fracture

3. Naso ethemoidal complex fracture

4. Le-Fort I fracture

86. The Local Drug Delivery system “ELYZOL” contains:
1. Metronidazole

2. Penicillin

3. Sanguinarine

4. Tetracycline

87. The electronic probing system ‘Foster Miller Probe” detects:
1. Only the pocket depth

2. Only the CEJ

3. CEJ and pocket depth

4. Furcation involvement

88. Purulent exudation from the gingival sulci is an indication of:
1. Deep pockets

2. Severe periodontal attachment loss

3. Nature of the inflammatory changes in the pocket wall

4. Shallow pockets

89 An advanced diagnostic technique, which has been suggested as an alternative to culture methods, is
1. Phase contrast microscopy

2. Direct immunofluorescence

3. Latex agglutination

4. Indirect immunofluorscent microscope assays

90. The pocket epithelium shows a series of histopathological changes. Which of the following is true in this regard?
1. Necrotic changes

2. Proliferative changes

3. Degenerative changes

4. Proliferative and degenerative changes

91. The consistency of the sub gingival calculus is described to be
1. Clay like

2. Flint like

3. Brick like

4. Soft
92 Which type of gingival enlargement is seen in puberty?

1. Interdental papillae appear bulbous but facial 9Ifl9!v is not affected

2. Interdental papillae and facial gingiva both are enlarged

3. Interdental gingiva marginal gingiva and attached gingiva all are enlarged

4. Both marginal gingiva and at gingival are enlarged

93. Which of the following is the diagnostic characteristic of peripheral giant cell granuloma?
1. Mass of granulation tissue

2. Multinuclear giant cells

3. Keliod like enlargement

4. Epithelium is atrophic in some areas

94. How many osseous walls are present in one-walled vertical defects?
1. One wall present

2. Two wall present

3. Three wall present

4. Four wall present

95. What do you understand by Isograft?
1. Bone taken from same individual

2. Bone taken from generally similar individual

3. Bone taken from identical twin

4. Bone taken from the same individual

96 Which percentage of sodium fluoride is used in iontophoresis?
1. 1%

2. 2%

3. 3%

4. 4%
97 Which microorganism has 90% presence in localized aggressive periodontitis?

1. Spirochetes

2. P Gingival is

3. P Inter media

4. A Actinomyecetemcomitans

98. Which radiographic technique gives three-dimensional view of the alveolar bony defects?
1. Intra-oral radiograph

2. Digital intra-oral radiography

3. Orthopantamograph

4. Spiral Computed Tomography

99 Which of the following soft tissue responses may occur as a reaction to orthodontic bands?
1. Marginal gingivitis

2. Gingival fibrosis

3. Ulcerative gingiva

4. Fulminating periodontitis

100. Cephalometrics is useful in assessing all of the following relationships EXCEPT:
1. Tooth to tooth

2. Bone to bone

3. Tooth to bone

4. Soft palate to gingiva

101. An 8 year old child with normal tooth calcification and eruption has primary mandibular second molar extracted. The resulting space should be:
1. Maintained until the premolar root is 213 developed

2. Closed slightly to accommodate the smaller premolar

3. Ignored, because the second premolar will erupt in a short time

4. Left untreated, because the difference in size between the primary molar and the premolar will compensate for any drifting that might occur

102. Relative to a heterogeneous population, the incidence of malocclusion in a homogeneous population generally is:
1. Lower

2. Slightly higher

3. Significantly higher

4. About the same

103 One of the greatest advantages of using extraoral anchorage is that
1. More force can be applied

2. It has direct reciprocal action on the opposing arch

3. It permits posterior movement of teeth in one arch without adversely dirsturbing the opposite arch

4. It can be used for all type of malocclusion

104. The Supervision of a child’s development of occlusion is most critical at ages:
1. 3-6 years

2. 7-10 years

3. 11-14 years

4. 14-l7years

105. With a flush terminal plane, permanent first molars will:
1. Initially be Class II

2. Initially be Class Ill

3. Immediately assume a normal relationship

4. Erupt immediately into an end-to-end relationship

106. Read the following carefully:

  1. Spheno-occipital synchondrosis suture

  2. Mandibular condyle

  3. Frontomaxillary

  4. Nasal septum

  5. Alveolar process

Which of the following are sites of cartilaginous growth postnatally?
1. a & b

2. a, b, & d

3. b, c ,& e

4. c & e

107. The histological section of tooth under orthodontic force representing an a vascular area in the periodontal ligament is often referred as:
1. Frontal zone

2. Hyalanized zone

3. Undermining zone

4. Clear zone

108. Which is the most often and most stable used plane for the superimposition of lateral cephalograms in studying the?
1. Frontal zone

2. S-N plane

3. Mandibular plane

4. Occlusal plane

109. Malocclusion representing a transverse deficiency is often referred to as:
1. Open bite

2. Closed bite

3. Cross bite

4. Deep bite

110. Which of the following cephalometric landmarks is not a midline structure?
1. Nasion

2. Menton

3. Sella

4. Gonion

111. Which one of the following is the result of applying a load to a wire below its modulus of elasticity on a load deflection diagram?
1. Fracture of the wire

2. Permanent deformation

3. Spring back

4. Increase In stiffness

112. The purpose of incorporation of a coil into a cantilever spring is:
1. Activation of the spring

2. Increase the force

3. Decrease the force

4. Decrease the stiffness of the wire

113 Which aspect of malocclusion is the most common among Indian population?
1. An oversized lower jaw

2. Teeth that don’t touch when jaw is frilly closed

3. Spacing between the teeth

4. Crowded teeth

114 The first reaction that takes lace an orthodontist attempts active tooth movement with a removable appliance is
1. Pressure and tension zones from in the periodontal ligament

2. Force is applied tin the tooth

3. Osteoclasts create undermining resorption

4. Tooth moves by direct resorption

115. The tooth that is used to identify the type of occlusion universally is:
1. Second molar

2. Central incisor

3. Canine

4. First molar

116. Anchorage obtained from the nape of the neck represents:
1. Occipital anchorage

2. Cervical anchorage

3. Facial anchorage

4. Parietal anchorage

117. Which of the following is the most important factor to be considered before attempting to dose a midline diastema using a removable appliance?
1. The size of the teeth

2. Age of the patient

3. Vitality of the teeth

4. Amount of overjet

118. The Y-axis is also known as growth axis because:
1. Its axis is parallel to patient’s growth in height

2. It is an indicator of the direction of growth pattern

3. It is an indicator of the amount of facial growth

4. It increases in size as the growth increases

119. If an edgewise bracket is not pressed completely on to a tooth on the mesial side while bonding, the side effect would be:
1. Intrusion of tooth

2. Extrusion of tooth

3. Rotation of tooth

4. Breakage of Bracket

120 Considering the growth of the face in all three planes growth ceases last in which direction?
1. Antero posterior

2. Sagittal

3. Transverse

4. Vertical

121. The most preferred approach for pituitary surgery at the present time is:
1. Transcranial

2. Transethmoidal

3. Transphenoidal

4. Transcallosal

122. The normal range of serum osmolality (in Osm/L) is:
1. 270 to 285

2. 300 to 320

3. 350 to 375

4. 200 to 250

123. Afferent component of corneal reflex is mediated by:
1. Vagus nerve

2. Facial nerve

3. Trigeminal nerve

4. Glossopharyngeal nerve

124. Which of the following is a tumor of odontogenic epithelium with duct like structures and structures and well encapsulated lesion that prevents need for block resection?
1. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumour

2. Pindborg tumour

3. Odontogenic myxoma

4. Ameloblastic fibroma

125. In TNM classification T stands for tumour size
1. >2cm

2. >4cm

3. <4cm

4. >4cm with invasion of adjacent structure

126. Dense in dente is most commonly seen in:
1. Premolars

2. Premolars

3. Lateral incisors

4. Maxillary canine

127. Taurodontism is usually seen in:
1. Mesiodens

2. Incisor with talon/cusp

3. Mandibular first molar

4. Maxillary premolars

128. Ground glass appears in bone is seen in:
1. Hyper parathyroidism

2. Fibrous dysplasia

3. Condensing Osteitis

4. Osteoporosis

129. A radiopaque line is observed in the dentin underlying a three month old Class II amalgam restoration. Which of the following bases was used in this restoration?
1. Calcium hydroxide

2. Zinc phosphate cement

3. Zinc oxide eugenol

4. Zinc oxide eugenol and formocresol

130 A diagnosis of small occlusal cavities is most readily made by
1. Bite wing radiographs

2. Periapical radiographs

3. Tran illumination

4. An explorer and compressed air

131. An affected male infant born to normal parents could be an example of all of the following, EXCEPT:
1. An autosomal dominant disorder

2. An autosomal recessive disorder

3. A polygenic disorder

4. A vertically transmitted disorder

132. A child with a small head, minor anomalies of the face including a thin upper lip, growth delay, and developmental disability can have all of the following, EXCEPT:
1. A chromosomal syndrome

2. A Teratogenic syndrome

3. A Mendelian syndrome

4. A polygenic syndrome

133. In a family, the father has widely spaced e increased facial hair and deafness. One of the three children has deafness with similar facial features. The mother is normal. Which one of the following is most likely pattern of inheritance in this case?
1. Autosomal dominant

2. Autonomic recessive

3. X—linked dominant

4. X—linked recessive

134. All of the following cell types contain the enzyme which protects the length of telomerase at the end of chromosomes, EXCEPT:
1. Germinal

2. Somatic

3. Haemopoetic

4. Tumour

135. All are symptoms of opiate withdrawals EXCEPT:
1. Diarrhea

2. Lacrimation

3. Mydriasis

4. Excessive speech

136. Which of the following inhalational agents is the induction agent of choice in children?
1. Methoxyflurane

2. Sevoflurane

3. Desfiurane

4. Isoflurane

137. Which of the following is not a sign of stellate ganglion block?
1. Miosis

2. Exopthalmus

3. Nasal congestion

4. Conjunctiva redness

138. Which of the following intravenous induction agents is the most suitable for day care surgery:
1. Morphine

2. Ketamine

3. Propofol

4. Diazepam

139 A 5 year old patient is scheduled for tonsillectomy On the day of surgery he had running nose temperature 3750 C and dry cough Which of the following should be the most appropriate decision for surgery?
1. Surgery should be cancelled

2. Can proceed for surgery if chest is clear and there is no history of asthma

3. Should get X ray chest before proceeding to surgery

4. Cancel surgery for 3 week and patient to be en antibiotic

140. During phagocytosis, the metabolic process called respiratory burst involves the activation of:
1. Oxidase

2. Hydrolase

3. Peroxides

4. Dehydrogenase

141. Vitamin B12 acts as coenzyme to which one of the following enzymes?
1. Is citrate dehydrogenises

2. Homocysteine methyl transferase

3. Glycogen synthase

4. 0-6-P dehydrogenase

142. The ligand – receptor complex dissociates in the endosome because:
1. Of its large size

2. The vesicle looses is clathrin coat

3. Of the acidic pH of the vesicle

4. Of the basic pH of the vesicle

143. The human plasma lipoprotein containing the highest percentage of triacylglycerol by weight is:

2. Chylomicrons

3. HDL

4. LDL
144. The sigma (a) subunit of prokaryotic RNA Polymerase:

1. Binds the antibiotic Rifampicin

2. Is inhibited by  - amanitin

3. Specifically recognizes the promoter site.

4. Is part of the core enzyme

145. Which type of RNA has the highest percentage of modified base?
1. Mrna

2. tRNA

3. rRNA

4. snRNA
146. Proteins are linear polymers of amino acids. They fold into compact structures. Sometimes, these folded structures associate to form homo— or hetero— dimers. Which one of the following refers to this associated form?

1. Denatured state

2. Molecular aggregation

3. Precipitation

4. Quaternary structure

147 The structural proteins are involved in maintaining the shape of a cell or in the formation of matrices in the body. The shape of these proteins is
1. Globular

2. Fibrous

3. Stretch of Beads

4. Planar

148 The major purpose of randomization in a clinical trial is to
1. Facilitate double

2. Help ensure the study subjects are representative of general population

3. Ensure the groups are comparable on base line characteristics

4. Reduce selection bias in allocation to treatment

149. The purpose of double blinding in clinical trials is to:
1. Achieve comparability between study and control groups

2. Avoid observer bias

3. Avoid subject bias

4. Avoid observer and subject bias

150. When a drug is evaluated for its usefulness in controlled conditions, it is termed as a trial signifying?
1. Efficacy

2. Effectiveness

3. Efficiency

4. Effect modification

151. Which of the following is most strongly associated with coronary heart disease?
1. Apolipoproteins


3. HDL

4. Total lipoproteins

152. All the following are true in a randomized control trial (RCT), EXCEPT:
1. Baseline characteristics of intervention arid control groups should be s

2. Investigators bias is minimized by double blinding

3. The sample size required depends on the hypothesis

4. The dropouts from the trial should be excluded from the analysis

153 Joint erosions are not is feature of
1. Rheumatoid arthritls

2. Psoriasis

3. Multicentric reticUlohistiocytosis

4. Systemic lupus erythematosus

154. Nevirapine is a:
1. Protease inhibitor

2. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

3. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

4. Fusion inhibitor

155. Which of the following clinical findings excludes the diagnosis of poliomyelitis?
1. Neck muscle involvement

2. Extra ocular muscle involvement

3. Dysphasia

4. Abdominal muscle involvement

156. All of the following are the known causes ofosteoporosis EXCEPT:
1. Fluorosis

2. Hypogonadism

3. Hyperthyrodism

4. Hyperparathyroidism

157. All of the following are risk factors for atherosclerosis, EXCEPT:
1. Increased waist — hip ratio

2. Hyperhomocysteinemia

3. Decreased fibrinogen levels

4. Decreased HDL levels

158. A young girl has consumed barium carbonate with suicidal intent. She complains of generalized muscle weakness. The most likely electrolyte abnormality is:
1. Hyponatremia

2. Hypocalcaemia

3. Hypokalemia

4. Hypomagnesaemia

159 All of the following antibacterial agents act by inhibiting cell wall synthesis EXCEPT
1. Carbapenems

2. Monobactams

3. Cephamycins

4. Nitrofurantoin

160. A veterinary doctor has pyrexia of unknown origin. His blood culture in special laboratory media was positive for gram-negative short bacilli, which was oxidase positive. Which one of the following is the likely organism grown in culture:
1. Pasturella spp.

2. Francisella spp.

3. Bartonella spp.

4. Brucella spp.

161. Which one of the following statement is true regarding pathogen city of Mycobacterium species?
1. M. tuberculosis is more pathogenic than M. bovis to the humans

2. M. kansasii can cause a disease indistinguishable from tuberculosis

3. M. africanum infection is acquired from the environmental source

4. M. marinum is responsible for tubercular lymphadenopathy

162. A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to Staphylococcus aureus, which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All the following antibiotics will be appropriate, EXCEPT:
1. Vancomycin

2. lmipenem

3. Teichoptanin

4. Linezolid

163 Middle meningeal artery is distal branch of
1. External carotid artery

2. Internal maxillary artery

3. Superficial temporal artery

4. Middle cerebral artery

164. Calcitonin is secreted by:
1. Thyroid gland

2. Parathyroid gland

3. Adrenal glands

4. Ovaries

165. Which of the following conditions is least likely to present as an eccentric osteolytic lesion?
1. Aneurismal bone cyst

2. Giant cell tumor

3. Fibrous cortical defect

4. Simple bone cyst

166. Bisphosphonates act by:
1. Increasing the osteoid formation

2. Increasing the mineralization of osteoid

3. Decreasing the osteoclast mediated resorption of bone

4. Decreasing the parathyroid hormone secretion

167. All the statements are true tout exostosis, EXCEPT:
1. It occurs at the growing end of bone

2. Growth continues after skeletal maturity

3. It is covered by cartilaginous cap

4. Malignant transformation may occur

168. “Rugger Jersey Spine” is seen in:
1. Fluorosis

2. Achondroplasia

3. Renal Osteodystrophy

4. Marfans syndrome

169. Brown tumors are seen in;
1. Hyperparathyroid

2. Pigmented villonodular synovitis

3. Osteomalacia

4. Neurofibromatosis

170. Which of the following malignant tumors is radioresistant?
1. Ewing’s sarcoma

2. Retinoblastoma

3. Osteosarcoma

4. Neuroblastoma

171. A child is below the third percentile for height. His growth velocity is normal, but chronologic age is more than skeletal age. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Constitutional delay in growth

2. Genetic short stature

3. Primordial dwarfism

4. Hypopituitarism

172 The process underlying differences in expression of a gene according which parent has transmitted is called.
1. Anticipation

2. Mosaicism

3. Non — penetrance

4. Genomic imprinting

173 Megaloblastic anemia due to folic acid deficiency is commonly due to
1. Inadequate dietary intake.

2. Defective intestinal absorption

3. Absence of folic acid binding protein in serum

4. Absence of glutei acid in the intestine

174. Actinic cell carcinomas of the salivary gland arise most often in the:
1. Parotid salivary gland

2. Minor salivary glands

3. Submandibular salivary gland

4. Sublingual salivary gland

175. Fine needle aspiration cytology is not suitable for diagnosing:
1. Tubercular lymphadenitis

2. Papillary carcinoma thyroid

3. Plasmacytoma

4. Aneurismal bone cyst

176. All of the following immunohistochemical markers are positive in the neoplastic cells of granulocytic sarcoma, EXCEPT:
1. CD 45 RO

2. C 43

3. Myeloperoxidase

4. Lysozyme

177. Which one of the following antibacterial should not be used with d-tubocurarine?
1. Norfloxacin

2. Streptomycin

3. Doxycycline

4. Cefotaxime

178. Which one of the following drugs is antipseudomonal penicillin?
1. Cephalexin

2. Cloxacillin

3. Piperacillin

4. Dicloxacillin

179. All of the following are therapeutic uses of PM EXCEPT.
1. Bacterial meningitis -

2. Rickettsial infection

3. Syphilis

4. Anthrax

180. Which one of the following muscle relaxant has the maximum duration of action?
1. Atracurium

2. Vecuronium

3. Rocuronium

4. Doxacurium

181 Which one of the following local anaesthetics belongs to the ester group?
1. Procaine

2. Bupivacaine

3.. Lignocaine

4. Mepivacaine

182. Which one of the following agents sensitizes the myocardium to catecholamine?
1. Isoflurane

2. Ether

3. Halothane

4. Propofol

183. Which of the following organs is not involved in calcium homeostasis?
1. Kidneys

2. Skin

3. Intestines

4. Lungs
184. Which of the following secretions has a very high pH?

1. Gastric juice

2. Pancreatic juice

3. Bile in gall bladder

4. Saliva

185. The most common retro bulbar orbital mass in adults is:
1. Neurofibroma

2. Meningioma

3. Cavernous hemangioma

4. Schwannoma

186. Expansile lytic osseous metastases are characteristic of primary malignancy of:
1. Kidney

2. Bronchus

3. Breast

4. Prostate

187. All of them use non- ionizing radiation, EXCEPT:

1. Ultrasonography

2. Tomography

3. MRI

4. Radiography
188 Mixed tumour of the salivary glanç1 are
1. Most common in submandibular gland

2. Usually malignant

3. Most common in parotid gland

4. Associated with calculi

189. A malignant tumour of childhood that metastasizes to bones most often is:
1. Wilma tumour

2. Neuroblastoma

3. Adrenal gland tumour

4. Granulose cell tumour of ovary

190. All of the following radioisotopes are used as systemic radionuclide, EXCEPT:
1. Phosphorus-32

2. Strontium-89

3. Iridium-192

4. Samarium153

191. Phosphorous-32 emits:
1. Beta particles

2. Alfa particles

3. Neutrons

4. X-rays

192. Which one of the following imaging techniques gives maximum radiation exposure to the patient?
1. Chest X-ray

2. MRI

3. CT scan

4. Bone scan

193 Which one of the following has the maximum ionization potential?
1. Electron

2. Proton

3. Helium ion

4. Gamma (y) Photon

194. Which of the following is not a major criteria for diagnosis of multiple myeloma?
1. Lytic bone lesions

2. Plasmacytoma on tissue biopsy

3. Bone marrow plasmacytosis > 30%

4. ‘M’ spike >3g% for Ig G, >2g% for Ig A

195. Which of the following medications is contraindicated in patients with allergy to sulfa?
1. Levobunolol

2. Bimatoprost

3. Brinzolamide

4. Brimonidine

196. Laryngocele arises as a herniation of laryngeal mucosa through the following membrane:
1. Thyrohyoid

2. Cricothyroid

3. Crico-tracheal

4. Cricosternal

197. The following statements about thyroglossal cyst are true, EXCEPT:
1. Frequent cause of anterior midline neck masses in the first decade of life

2. The cyst is located within 2 cm of the midline

3. Incision and Drainage is the treatment of choice

4. The swelling moves upwards on protrusion of tongue

198 Noontimes hyperplasia causes vascular graft failure as a result of hypertrophy at
1. Endothelial cells

2. Collagen fibers

3. Smooth muscle cells

4. Elastic fibers

199. Dacron vascular graft is:
1. Nontextile synthetic

2. Textile synthetic

3. Nontextile biologic

4. Textile biologic

200. Mycotic abscesses are due to:
1. Bacterial infection

2. Fungal infection

3. Viral infection

4. Mixed infection

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